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Padma Award Winners for 2012 (Full List)

2012-01-26T19:44:00.000-08:00

Padma Award Winners for 2012

Padma Vibhushan
● K G Subramanyan Art-Painting & Sculpture West Bengal
● Late (Dr.)Bhupen Hazarika Art- Vocal Music Assam
● Late Mario De Miranda Art-Cartoonist Goa
● Dr. Kantilal Hastimal Sancheti Medicine - Orthopedics Maharashtra
● T V Rajeswar Civil Service Delhi

Padma Bhushan
● Smt. Shabana Azmi Art - Cinema Maharashtra
● Jatin Das Art - Painting Delhi
● Khaled Choudhury Art - Theatre West Bengal
● Pandit Buddhadev Das Gupta Art - Instrumental Music - Sarod West Bengal
● Dr. Trippunithwra Viswanathan Gopalkrishnan Art - Classical vocal and instrumental music Tamil Nadu
● Dharmendra Singh Deol alias Dharmendra Art - Cinema Maharashtra
● Ms. Mira Nair Art - Cinema Delhi
● M.S. Gopalakrishnan Art - Instrumental Music-Violin Tamil Nadu
● Satya Narayan Goenka Social Work Maharashtra
● Dr. (Judge) Patibandla Chandrasekhar Rao Public Affairs Germany
● Anish Kapoor Art - Sculpture UK

● George Yong-Boon Yeo Public Affairs Singapore
● Prof. Shashikumar Chitre Science and Engineering Maharashtra
● Subbiah Murugappa Vellayan Trade and Industry Tamil Nadu
● Balasubramanian Muthuraman Trade and Industry Maharashtra
● Dr. M S Raghunathan Science and Engineering Maharashtra
● Dr. Suresh H. Advani Medicine - Oncology Maharashtra
● Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty Medicine-Cardiology Karnataka
● Prof. (Dr.) Shantaram Balwant Mujumdar Literature and Education Maharashtra
● Ronen Sen Civil Service West Bengal
● Dr. Homi K. Bhabha Literature and Education UK
● Dr. Noshir H Wadia Medicine-Neurology Maharashtra
● Prof. Vidya Dehejia Literature and Education USA
● Prof. Arvind Panagariya Literature and Education USA
● Dr. Jose Pereira Literature and Education USA
● N Vittal Civil Service Kerala
● Mata Prasad Civil Service Uttar Pradesh

Padma Shri
● Vanraj Bhatia Art - Music Maharashtra
● Zia Fariduddin Dagar Art - Music - vocal Maharashtra
● Smt. Nameirakpam Ibemni Devi Art - Music- Khongjom Parba Manipur
● Ramachandra Subraya Hegde Chittani Art - Yakshagana dance drama Karnataka
● Moti Lal Kemmu Art - Playwright Jammu and Kashmir
● Smt. R. Nagarathnamma Art - Theatre Karnataka
● Kalamandalm Sivan Nambootiri Art - Indian Classical Dance- Kutiyattam Kerala
● Smt. Yamunabai Waikar Art - Indian Folk Music-Lavani. Maharashtra
● Satish Alekar Art - Playwright Maharashtra
● Pandit Gopal Prasad Dubey Art - Chhau dance and choreography Jharkhand
● Ramakant Gundecha Art - Indian Classical Music- Vocal Madhya Pradesh
● Shahid Parvez Khan Art - Instrumental Music-Sitar Maharashtra
● Mohan Lal Kumhar Art - Terracotta Rajasthan
● Sakar Khan Manganiar Art - Rajasthani Folk Music Rajasthan
● Smt. Joy Michael Art - Theatre Delhi
● Dr. Minati Mishra Art - Indian Classical Dance-Odissi. Orissa
● Natesan Muthuswamy Art - Theatre. Tamil Nadu
● Umakant Gundecha Art - Indian Classical Music- Vocal Madhya Pradesh
● Anup Jalota Art-Indian Classical Music- Vocal Maharashtra
● Soman Nair Priyadarsan Art - Cinema- Direction Kerala
● Sunil Janah Art-Photography Assam
● Ms. Laila Tyebji Art-Handicrafts Delhi
● Vijay Sharma Art-Painting Himachal Pradesh
● Smt. Shamshad Begum Social Work Chattisgarh
● Niranjan Pranshankar Pandya Social Work Maharashtra
● Dr. Uma Tuli Social Work Delhi
● Sat Paul Varma Social Work Jammu and Kashmir
● Smt.Binny Yanga Social Work Arunachal Pradesh
● Yezdi Hirji Malegam Public Affairs Maharashtra
● Pravin H. Parekh Pubic Affairs Delhi
● Smt. Reeta Devi Social Work Delhi
● Dr. P.K. Gopal Social Work Tamil Nadu
● Smt. Phoolbasan Bai Yadav Social Work Chattisgarh
● Dr. G. Muniratnam Social Work Andhra Pradesh
● Dr. V. Adimurthy Science and Engineering Kerala
● Dr. Krishna Lal Chadha Science and Engineering - Agriculture Delhi
● Prof. Virander Singh Chauhan Science and Engineering Delhi
● Prof. Rameshwar Nath Koul Bamezai Science and Engineering Jammu and Kashmir
● Shoji Shiba Trade and Industry Japan
● Gopinath Pillai Trade and Industry Singapore
● Arun Hastimal Firodia Trade and Industry Maharashtra
● Dr. Swati A. Piramal Trade and Industry Maharashtra
● Prof. Mahdi Hasan Medicine-Anatomy Uttar Pradesh
● Dr. Vijaypal Singh Science and Engineering - Agricultural Research Uttar Pradesh
● Dr. Lokesh Kumar Singhal Science and Engineering Punjab
● Dr. Yagnaswami Sundara Rajan Science and Engineering Karnataka
● Prof. Jagadish Shukla Science and Engineering USA
● Ms. Priya Paul Trade and Industry Delhi
● Dr. Viswanathan Mohan Medicine - Diabetology Tamil Nadu
● Dr. J. Hareendran Nair Medicine - Ayurveda Kerala
● Dr. Vallalarpuram Sennimalai Natarajan Medicine - Geriatrics Tamil Nadu
● Dr. Jitendra Kumar Singh Medicine - Oncology Bihar
● Surjit Singh Patar Literature and Education - Poetry Punjab
● Vijay Dutt Shridhar Literature and Education - Journalism Madhya Pradesh
● Irwin Allan Sealy Literature and Education Uttarakhand
● Ms. Geeta Dharmarajan Literature and Education Delhi
● Prof. Sachchidanand Sahai Literature and Education Haryana
● Smt. Pepita Seth Literature and Education Kerala
● Dr. Ralte L. Thanmawia Literature and Education Mizoram
● Dr. Shrinivas S. Vaishya Medicine-Healthcare Daman and Diu
● Dr. Nitya Anand Medicine - Drugs Research Uttar Pradesh
● Late Dr. Jugal Kishore Medicine - Homoeopathy Delhi
● Dr. Mukesh Batra Medicine-Homeopathy Maharashtra
● Dr. Eberhard Fischer Literature and Education Switzerland
● Kedar Gurung Literature and Education Sikkim
● Ajeet Bajaj Sports - Skiing Delhi
● Smt. Jhulan Goswami Sports - Women's Cricket West Bengal
● Zafar Iqbal Sports-Hockey Uttar Pradesh
● Devendra Jhajrija Sports - Athletics- Paralympics Rajasthan
● Limba Ram Sports - Archery Rajasthan
● Syed Mohammed Arif Sports - Badminton Andhra Pradesh
● Prof. Ravi Chaturvedi Sports- Commentary Delhi
● Prabhakar Vaidya Sports-Physical Education Maharashtra
● T. Venkatapathi Reddiar Others-Horticulture Puducherry
● Dr. K. (Kota) Ullas Karanth Others-Wildlife Conservation and Environment Protection Karnataka
● K Paddayya Others-Archaeology Maharashtra
● Swapan Guha Others-Ceramics Rajasthan
● Dr. Kartikeya V. Sarabhai Others - Environmental Education Gujarat

Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam, 2011 : English Language (Fully Solved)

2012-01-23T19:01:00.000-08:00

Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011
(Held on 25-9-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions–Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/expressions are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Battle of Gettysburg was fought during the first three days of July, 1863. During the night of July 4, Lee began to retreat southward while storm clouds' deluged the country with rain. When Lee reached the Potomac river with his defeated army, he found a swollen, impassable river in front of him, and a victorious Union army behind him. Lee was in a trap. He couldn't escape. US President, Abraham Lincoln saw that. Here was a golden, heaven-sent opportunity - the opportunity to capture Lee's army and end the war immediately. So, with a surge of high hope, Lincoln ordered General Meade not to call a council of war but to attack Lee immediately. Lincoln telegraphed his orders and then sent a special messenger to Meade demanding immediate action.

And, what did General Meade do ? He did the very opposite of what he was told to do. He called a council of war in direct violation of Lincoln's orders. Finally the water receded and Lee escaped over the Potomac with his forces.

Lincoln was furious. "What does this mean ?" Lincoln cried "Great God ! What does this mean ? We had them within our grasp, and had only to stretch forth our hands and they were ours; yet nothing that I could say or do could make the army move. Under the circumstances, almost any general could have defeated Lee.

In bitter disappointment, Lincoln sat down and wrote Meade this letter. And remember, at this period of his life, he was extremely conservative and restrained in his phraseology. So this letter coming from Lincoln in 1863 was tantamount to the severest rebuke.

"My dear' General,

"I do not believe you appreciate the magnitude of the misfortune involved in Lee's escape. He was within our easy grasp, and to have closed upon him would, in connection with our other late successes, have ended the war. As it is, the war will be prolonged indefinitely. If you could not safely attack Lee last Monday, how can you possibly do so south of the river, when you can take with you very few -not more than two-thirds of the force you then had in hand ? It would be unreasonable to expect and I do not expect that you can now effect much. Your golden opportunity is gone, and I am distressed immeasurably because of it."

What do you suppose Meade did when he read that letter ?

Meade never saw that letter. Lincoln never mailed it. It was found among Lincoln's papers after his death.

My guess is – and this is only a guess – that after writing that letter, Lincoln looked out of the window and said to himself, "Just a minute. May be I ought not to be so hasty. It is easy enough for me to sit here in the quiet of the White House and order Meade to attack; but if I had been up at Gettysburg, and if I had seen as much blood as Meade had seen during the last week, and if my ears had been pierced with the screams and shrieks of the wounded and dying, maybe I wouldn't be so anxious to attack either."

1. Which of the following is the author's guess about the reason for Lincoln's withholding the letter to General Meade ?
(A) There was no point in lamenting over spilt milk as the matter was already over
(B) Decisions taken while sitting in ivory tower may not be as appropriate as those taken after witnessing the battle field
(C) The blood seen at the battle field and the shrieks of the dying heard by Lincoln
(D) General's views should be considered by President not-withstanding their merits
(E) He wanted to avoid confrontation with the General at that critical hour
Ans : (B)

2. What would have been the probable consequences had General Meade followed Lincoln's orders ?
(a) It would have prolonged the war further, indefinitely
(b) Lee's army would have got enough time for a safe escape
(c) The Council of war would not have granted permission to carry out the orders
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

3. Abraham Lincoln had ordered General Meade not to……………..
(a) attack Lee while he had been at a disadvantage due to flooded river
(b) let Lee escape so that the war could be ended immediately
(c) call a council of war to discuss the attack on Lee's forces
(A) All the three
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. In the context of the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………..
(A) General Meade would have found it difficult to win the war after Lee's safe escape
(B) General Meade failed to end the war because of the swollen Potomac river
(C) Abraham Lincoln's orders were violated by General Meade
(D) When Potomac river was in spate, Lincoln considered it as a golden opportunity
(E) Abraham Lincoln refrained from sending the letter to General Meade
Ans : (B)

5. What was the situation that made Lee uncomfortable on the fourth day of war while retreating ?
(A) His army had been defeated in a very humiliating manner
(B) He was trapped in an ambush laid down by the enemy's army
(C) His army was sandwiched between enemy's forces and a swollen river
(D) Storm clouds had deluged the country with heavy rains
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. What could be the probable reason why General Meade didn't follow Lincoln's orders ?
General Meade……………..
(A) knew that Lincoln was not empowered to issue such orders
(B) did not wish to terminate war so early
(C) was rule-bound and wanted to follow orders of Council of War
(D) having defeated the enemy, wanted to avoid further bloodshed
(E) was aware of the danger of crossing the swollen Potomac river
Ans : (D)

7. What was the outcome of General Meade' s inaction on Abraham Lincoln's orders ?
(a) Lee and his army could escape safely
(b) It infuriated Abraham Lincoln
(c) Lee's army was defeated and had to retreat
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. The contents of the passage reveal which qualities of General Meade ?
(A) Timidity and arrogance
(B) Courage and humanitarian consideration
(C) Obedience and bravery
(D) Treachery and lack of patriotism
(E) Undue compassion for enemy and lawlessness
Ans : (B)

9. Abraham Lincoln was extremely annoyed with General Meade because…………….. (A) the latter had hurt his ego by violating his orders
(B) the General had procrastinated on his orders due to inertia
(C) a golden opportunity to win the war early was lost
(D) the latter had colluded with the enemy General
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 10-12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold.

10. Conservative
(A) Traditional
(B) Negative
(C) Backward
(D) Biased
(E) Unsymmetrical
Ans : (A)

11. Distressed
(A) Relieved
(B) Annoyed
(C) Sad
(D) Anxious
(E) Devastated
Ans : (B)

12. Grasp
(A) Understand
(B) Seize
(C) Knowledge
(D) Reach
(E) Assimilate
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 13-15) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold.

13. Surge
(A) Thinning
(B) Flash
(C) Drought
(D) Iota
(E) Miniscule
Ans : (A)

14. Violation
(A) Breach
(B) Honouring
(C) Obedient
(D) Confirmation
(E) Regulation
Ans : (B)

15. Receded
(A) Accumulated
(B) Extended
(C) Deflated
(D) Reflected
(E) Advanced
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) What made him one of the richest men in the USA ?
(b) He had hundreds of men working for him.
(c) And he knew how to handle these knowledgeable men.
(d) What made Andrew Carnegie a successful businessman?
(e) They knew far more about steel than he did.
(f) He was called the steel king, yet he himself knew little about manufacture of steel.

16. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 21-25) Against each question number, an incomplete statement is provided. In the next column, there are fillers denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (i). You have to find out which one, two or more of these can grammatically and meaningfully complete the incomplete statement provided against the question number. Accordingly, mark your answer where .answer choices are provided against question number repeated below the statement and fillers.
(a) he had to pay what the vendor had insisted on.
(b) yet, he seldom wins any easy bargain.
(c) yet, he somehow manages to maintain a win-win situation.
(d) and therefore, he always gets an edge over others.
(e) still, he rarely succeeds in being a beneficiary.
(f) but he refrains from seeking any benefits out of that strength.
(g) people are carried away by his perceived quality.
(h) he uses it for the society and not for self
(i) how can one expect him to benefit ?

21. His misunderstanding is that he acquired a good trick of the trade…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) Either (d) or (e)
(C) (g) only
(D) (d) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. He projects himself as a likeable person without really being so…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (g) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (a) only
(E) Either (c) or (g)
Ans : (B)

23. His persuasive skills are of a higher order…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (g)only
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

24. Despite being good at negotiations…………..
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only
(C) Either (a) or (c)
(D) Either (a) or (b)
(E) Either (b) or (c)
Ans : (A)

25. He has serious limitations in convincing others…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (d) only
(E) Either (d) or (e)
Ans : (C)

Directions –(Q. 26-35) Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer i.e. "No Correction Required".

26. Favourable changes would be visible if proper information will be shared without any reservations.
(A) will be visible if proper information would be shared
(B) would be visible if proper information is shared
(C) would be visible through proper share of information
(D) were visible after share of information will be proper
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (B)

27. In the monsoon, large branches of trees suddenly break up and fall, wreck parked cars or a passing pedestrian.
(A) break up and fall suddenly, wreck
(B) suddenly break up, fall and wreck
(C) suddenly break off and fall, wrecking
(D) suddenly wreck, fall and break off
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

28. People had been motivated to join the movement to fight poverty and use the armed struggle to get social justice.
(A) are motivated to join
(B) were motivated to joining
(C) had motivation for joining
(D) had been motivated for joining
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

29. The Government discovered that though the scientist's seniority was entitled the highest grade in the service, his claims had been over-looked.
(A) scientist was entitled to the I highest grade by his seniority
(B) seniority of the scientist had been entitled to the highest grade .
(C) highest grade was entitled to the scientist with his seniority
(D) seniority was a factor to decide entitlement of the scientist to highest grade
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

30. Through the experiment, the boy, had gained just enough knowledge to whet his appetite for more.
(A) just enough knowledge to his appetite whetting for more
(B) enough knowledge just to whet his appetite much more
(C) just enough knowledge for whetting more and more appetite
(D) knowledge enough to whet is much more appetite
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

31. The relationship has perceived by people of both countries as mutually beneficial and rewarding, so that they will develop trust and confidence.
(A) perception of relationship between people
(B) perceived relationship among people
(C) relationship as perceived by people
(D) relationship has to perceived by people
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

32. While acknowledging his knowledge and technical competence, the official sources lay down stress on his Integrity.
(A) lay upon stress on the integrity
(B) lay off stress on his integrity
(C) lay stress on his integrity
(D) lay stress on him being a person on integrity
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

33. There is an impact assessment zone where radiation levels are regularly monitoring.
(A) level is regularly monitoring
(B) level is regular to monitor
(C) levels are regularly monitored
(D) level is monitoring regularly
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

34. What should they do with the enormous wealth is their lookout.
(A) they should have done with the enormous wealth have
(B) should they do if the wealth is enormous is
(C) should they be doing for the enormous wealth is
(D) they should do with the enormous wealth is
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

35. Those who voted for change in the region now wonder about its whereabouts.
(A) are now wonderful about its whereabouts
(B) have now wondered of its whereabouts
(C) now wonder at whereabouts of themselves
(D) wonder about their whereabouts now
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 36-40) In each sentence below there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair best fits 'in the blanks in the same serial order to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The letter of that pair is the answer.

36. She had done her graduation and has……………..working in the company……………..nearly twenty years.
(A) is, since
(B) is, from
(C) was, since
(D) been, for
(E) started, about
Ans : (D)

37. Although I was……………..in front of the house, I could not……………..it due to lot of changes around.
(A) facing, find
(B) standing, recognize
(C) right, believe
(D) working, help
(E) alighted, sense
Ans : (B)

38. Spending time is not a……………..as there are numerous……………..to keep me busy.
(A) boon, action
(B) disaster, works
(C) difficulty, occasions
(D) solution, problems
(E) problem, activities
Ans : (E)

39. He realized that poverty can be……………..not by raising slogans, but by……………..more and more jobs for the unemployed.
(A) eliminated, doing
(B) handled, enhancing
(C) eradicated, creating
(D) elevated, assigning
(E) dealt, offering
Ans : (C)

40. When the suppliers came to know that the li1aterial we purchased was for……………..work, they offered generous discount and also made free……………..
(A) relief, delivery
(B) personal, supply
( C) our, manufacture
(D) exceptional, resources
(E) trivial, passage
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest official figures of 2010 on ...(41)... say this: "A typical Indian worker is male,
...(42)... working in his midtwenties, is presumably better educated than before, ...(43)... most likely to find work as casual labour the ...(44)... secure of jobs. He is also more likely to ...(45)... a job, less likely to be interested in one, and will surely earn better money. His wife is less likely to work."

This is just the sort of ...(46)... that the government cautions observers not to paint, pointing to the formidable armies of the self-employed-those who ...(47)... your shoes, sell you roadside tea, and build a dhaba or a mechanic's shop-in the workforce. But be it the 'casual" workers or the self-employed, these are not the big, sweeping. ..( 48) ...that one expects to see 20 years after a big country starts liberalizing. ...(49) ..., the pro-portion of Indians in manufacturing jobs hasn't changed significantly ...(50)... the 90's.

41. (A) development
(B) economy
(C) employment
(D) education
(E) statistics
Ans : (C)

42. (A) decides
(B) starts
(C) neglects
(D) avoids
(E) pretends
Ans : (B)

43. (A) yet
(B) hence
(C) obviously
(D) and
(E) although
Ans : (A)

44. (A) financially
(B) more
(C) certainly
(D) least
(E) better
Ans : (D)

45. (A) assign
(B) seek
(C) create
(D) get
(E) delegate
Ans : (B)

46. (A) image
(B) guess
(C) riddle
(D) happening
(E) forecast
Ans : (A)

47. (A) wear
(B) polish
(C) handle
(D) sell
(E) steal
Ans : (B)

48. (A) realities
(B) tones
(C) alarms
(D) events
(E) changes
Ans : (A)

49. (A) Hence
(B) Liberally
(C) Subsequently
(D) Luckily
(E) Sadly
Ans : (E)

50. (A) before
(B) in
(C) since
(d) during
(E) over
Ans : (D)

PNB Specialist Officers Exam, 2011: English Language (Fully Solved)

2012-01-23T18:54:00.000-08:00

Punjab National Bank (Specialist Officers) Exam., 2011
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 28-8-2011)

Directions–(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words / phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The advent of technology has fundamentally changed our lives, but one thing is for sure: The velocity of technological change will accelerate in an exponential manner with significant ramifications for all of us. Just imagine: over half of the scientists and engineers who have ever lived are alive today. China adds about 6.5 million graduates every year, half of them engineers and scientists. It is not only the sheer number of "innovators" who will push the boundaries of science, technology and ultimately life-change, but also the greater degree of interconnectivity which accelerates the generation of knowledge and creates a much more entrepreneurial environment for innovation and change.

What is particularly striking is this dimension of change. Today's technological evolution no longer solely affects what we are doing, but also who we are. Of course, the Internet is in many ways still a tool, but it has also become part of our DNA. This is true for governments (just think of WikiLeaks), for businesses and for individuals. In some way, we are "outsourcing" parts of ourselves – and this raises the question: Who owns our 'inner most' self -our desires or our mobile phone records, capturing where we are going and with whom we are meeting. Is it technology companies, our local phone providers, or is it still us ?

It is not only the velocity and nature of change, but also the increasing multiplicity of actors which characterizes the world of today and tomorrow. Ten years ago, the Group of Eight (G-8) countries represented more than 60% of the world's economic power. Today, much more than half of the world's economic growth is produced by so-called emerging countries. This multiplicity of actors not only highlights the geographic expansion and the extension of multi-stakeholder impact, but it also underscores the fact that power is shifting from the top down and from the centre to the periphery -leaving almost seven billion people who want to have their say and the capability to do so.

The geoeconomic and geopolitical power shifts taking place will fundamentally change our lifestyles – equally, so too will the cultural seismic shifts that are occurring. Going forward, prevailing Western values will have to increasingly accommodate Asian values, and vice-versa. By 2025, four of the five largest economies in the world will be non-Western and close to half of the Fortune 500 companies will originate in emerging countries. This will have a direct impact on all of us in terms of new brands, new lifestyles and new industrial ownership structures.

All of these accelerated trends – velocity, multiplicity, interconnectivity – are creating a completely new world in which the mastering of complexities will be the key challenge. Of course, the more complex the system is, the greater the risk of systemic breakdowns.

1. Which of the following is predicted about world' s largest economies by 2025 ?
(A) Three out of the five largest economies will be Asian
(B) Four out of the five largest economies will be western
(C) Three out of the five largest economies will be non-western
(D) The top five largest economies will be non-western
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following is indicated about technology ?
(A) Technology changes will be more rapid now
(B) Technology will not bring about major societal changes now
(C) Number of innovations has gone down now
(D) Technologically advanced countries will represent 60% of world's economic power
(E) Telecommunication will see more advancement as compared to other areas
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following would, in future, be true about cultural changes ?
(A) Western culture will affect Asian culture
(B) Asian culture will affect western culture
(C) Both western and Asian culture and values will adjust and mingle with each other
(D) No culture will be able to influence the other culture
(E) Inspite of other rapid changes, cultural changes will be slow
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following is predicted about the Fortune 500 Companies ?
(A) Many of these companies will shift their base to the emerging countries
(B) Fortune 500 will be replaced by Fortune 2025
(C) Many new companies initiated in emerging countries will find place in Fortune 500
(D) None of the presently included countries will remain in Fortune 500 group by 2025
(E) The share of western countries will be less than 20% in Fortune 500
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following may be the best title for the passage ?
(A) Technology
(B) New world complexities
(C) Convergence of Asian Values
(D) Innennost Vs outerself
(E) Changing lifestyle by 2025
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is true about world economy?
(A) The share of G-8 countries in the economic growth is just 10%
(B) More countries from western world now contribute to the world's economy
(C) There are five countries which contribute about 60% of world's economic growth
(D) More than 50% of world's economic growth now comes from developing countries
(E) The growth rate of GDP of most of the western countries is much more than what it was 10 years ago
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following best describes the meaning of "push the boundaries" as used in the passage ?
(A) accept the challenge
(B) creating more competition
(C) prove to the world
(D) achieve the unimaginable
(E) take technology from one area to the other
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following has now become a part of our DNA ?
(A) Global cooperation
(B) Internet
(C) Western values
(D) Complex life style
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following would be the key challenge in the new world ?
(A) Controlling geopolitical power shifts
(B) Mastering the emerging complexities
(C) Pushing the boundaries of science
(D) Overcoming the power of internet
(E) The power shift from the centre to the periphery
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 10-13) Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

10. accommodate
(A) alter
(B) domesticate
(C) barrack
(D) include
(E) abide
Ans : (D)

11. ramifications
(A) ractifications
(B) backlashes
(C) consequences
(D) issues
(E) reverberations
Ans : (C)

12. accelerated
(A) new found
(B) unexpected
(C) rabid
(D) systemic
(E) fast paced
Ans : (E)

13. advent
(A) over-use
(B) importance
(C) approach
(D) arrival
(E) assurance
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 14-15) Choose I the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

14. striking
(A) friendly
(B) undistinguished
(C) interlocking
(D) noticeable
(E) non-colliding
Ans : (B)

15. key
(A) subsidiary
(B) closed
(C) primal
(D) locked
(E) over-ruled
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 16-25) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Delhi and Mumbai are the fifth and third cheapest cities of the world, out of 134 ...(16)..., says a news report. This comes as a ...(17)..., naturally, to those who live in these places and have been led to. ..(18) ... that they lead a pretty expensive life. Particularly what with the global commodity price boom pushing up material prices and all kinds of labour costs. With their considerable experience in 'arranging' surveys to deliver the desired results, many a Dilliwala or Mumbaikar might be tempted to ...(19)... the survey which came up with these results was ...(20)... by some sponsor or the other. Such cynicism goes out of the ...(21) ...when the same news report reveals that the survey was conducted by a respectable organisation. ...(22) ...a scrutiny of the top five cities and the two Indian cities, neighbours at the bottom yields a clue.

Tokyo leads the pack, followed by Oslo, Kobe, Paris and Zurich. One cannot readily vouch for Paris, but the other four are some of the most placid peaceful cities of the world. When we come to the bottom of the ranking, giving ...(23)... to Delhi and Mumbai are Tehran. Tunis and Karachi, the last mentioned being crowned the cheapest city of them all. Karachi gives the game away immediately, lifting all ...(24)... over what exactly is cheap in these places jostling for space at the bottom of the list. Life liberty and human dignity are what goes ...(25)... in these towns and what makes Delhi and Mumbai worthy contenders in the race to global cheapness. When crime goes unchecked, even after being widely reported and condemned, and criminals run rampant, life gets degraded, deformed, even extinguished. Life, in other words, gets cheap. Call it the lighter side of death.

16. (A) bigger
(B) participated
(C) sought
(D) designed
(E) surveyed
Ans : (E)

17. (A) reckoner
(B) shock
(C) mistake
(D) grief
(E) relief
Ans : (B)

18. (A) style
(B) believe
(C) display
(D) pretend
(E) deny
Ans : (B)

19. (A) deny
(B) protest
(C) oppose
(D) conclude
(E) conduct
Ans : (D)

20. (A) matched
(B) improved
(C) sponsored
(D) rejected
(E) manipulated
Ans : (E)

21. (A) doubt
(B) wisdom
(C) city
(D) door
(E) senses
Ans : (D)

22. (A) But
(B) Whether
(C) Would
(D) If
(E) As
Ans : (A)

23. (A) competing
(B) hints
(C) company
(D) significance
(E) threat
Ans : (C)

24. (A) inhibition
(B) definitions
(C) dependency
(D) mystery
(E) censor
Ans : (D)

25. (A) cheap
(B) unreported
(C) miss
(D) complex
(E) jostling
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 26-35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been lettered (A), (B), (C) or (D). The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

26. To begun with (A) / three agencies were (B) / retained to study (C) / and submit recommendations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. To clamp down on illegal mining (A) / that loses money for the Exchequer, (B) / local people need to empowered (C) / to vet and oversee operations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

28. In real terms, it (A) / means passing up on (B) / opportunities that presents (C) / themselves to us. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

29. The failure to control (A) / losses or increase revenues (B) / in a market growing (C) / in double digit is significantly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

30. There have been (A) / marked changes, (B) / but social rather (C) / then economic. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. Notwithstand his (A) / frequent indisposition, (B) / he has diligently attended (C) / every single court hearing. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. The administration continued to (A) / improve bilateral relations, (B) / while deepening and (C) / formalizing the economic dialogue. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. The cause of rising crimes (A) / against women has its roots (B) / in the skewed sex ratio which (C) / males outnumber females. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. Now that more and more (A) / internet sites are tailored (B) / their services to the requirements of individual users, (C) / queries may yield different outcomes for different people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. These are among (A) / the many contentious points (B) / that the author make (C) / in his controversial book. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Utt. Gramin Bank Office Assist Exam, 2011 : GE Solved Paper

2011-12-30T08:16:00.000-08:00

Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam., 2011
(Held on 10-4-2011)
General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1 to 12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the question—

One of the boys in a small village was sent out to the fields to look after some sheep. He was instructed bye the villagers to mind the sheep and take care of them. ‘Don't let them stray,’ said the villagers to him. “And keep a good look out for the wolves. Don't go far away’, and if you see a wolf coming near the sheep; shout out ‘wolf!’ as loudly as you can and we will come at once to help you.” ‘All right!’ said the boy, ‘I will be careful.’ So every morning he drove his sheep out to the hillside and watched them all day. And when evening came, he drove them home again. But after a few days he got rather tired of this lonely life. Nothing happened and no wolves came. So one afternoon he said to himself. “These villagers have given me a very useless job. I think I will play a trick on them, just for fun.”

So he got up and began shouting as loudly as he could, ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ The people in the village heard him, and at once they came running with their sticks. ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ shouted the boy; and they ran faster. At last they came up to him out of breath. “Where is the wolf ?” they panted. But the boy only laughed and said: “There is no wolf. I only shouted for fun. And it was fun to see you all running as hard as you could !” The men were very angry. “You mischievous boy !” they said. “If you play a trick like that again, we will beat you instead of the wolf.” And they went back to their work in the village. For some days the boy kept quiet. But he got restless again, and said to himself : “I wonder if they will come running again if I cry wolf once more. It was so much fun the last time.”

So once more he began shouting, ‘Wolf ! Wolf’ ! The villagers heard him. Some said, “That boy is up to his tricks again”. But others said, “it may be true this time; and if there really is a wolf, we shall lose some of our sheep.” So they seized their sticks, and ran out of the village to the sheep.

“Where is the wolf ? ” they shouted, as they came up. ‘Nowhere!’ said the boy laughing. “It was fun to see you running up the hill as fast as you could.” “We will teach you to play jokes,” shouted the angry men; and they seized the boy and gave him a good beating, and left him crying instead of laughing.

A few days later a wolf really did come. When the boy saw it, he was very frightened and began shouting ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ The villagers heard him, but they said. “We won't make a fool of ourselves for a third time. You can't believe a boy after you have caught him lying twice.” So no one went to help him, and the wolf killed several sheep and frightened the boy nearly out of his wits. But he learnt his lesson.

1. What was the task given to the boy in the village ?
(A) The boy was asked to mind the sheep
(B) The boy was instructed to play a prank on the villagers
(C) The boy was asked to count the sheep on the hill side
(D) The boy was instructed to capture the wolf
(E) The boy was asked to feed the sheep to the wolf
Ans : (A)

2. Why did the boy yell out ‘Wolf’ the first time ?
(A) He was practising in case a wolf really appeared
(B) He wanted to scare the sheep
(C) He wanted to play a trick on the villagers
(D) He thought he saw a wolf
(E) He wanted to call out to the wolf
Ans : (C)

3. Why did the villagers beat the boy ?
1. The boy refused to look after the sheep.
2. The boy made them run up the hill for fun.
3. He let the wolf eat some of the sheep.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (B)

4. Why did the villagers ignore the boy's shouts the third time?
(A) They were tired of playing games with the boy
(B) They could not understand what the boy was saying
(C) The boy had lied to them twice earlier
(D) They were tired of running after the boy
(E) They could not leave their work in the village
Ans : (C)

5. What could be an appropriate moral of the story ?
(A) Never tell lies
(B) Never play with animals
(C) Never shout ‘Help’
(D) Jokes do no harm
(E) Never chase wolves
Ans : (A)

6. What lesson did the boy learn from the villagers ?
1. The boy learnt not to joke around about serious matters.
2. The boy learnt never to make people run unnecessarily .
3. The boy learnt how to mind the sheep.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the boy feel that he was given a useless job?
(A) The sheep were always lethargic
(B) He could not play any tricks on the wolves
(C) There were no wolves in the area
(D) He felt he was wasting his time as no wolf came around
(E) The sheep never troubled him
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following sentences is true of the boy as given in the passage ?
(A) The boy was poor
(B) The boy was trustworthy
(C) The boy had no friends
(D) The boy was useless
(E) The boy was mischievous
Ans : (E)

9. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The boy who cried ‘Wolf’
(B) The imaginary ‘Wolf’
(C) The Lost Sheep
(D) The Honest Shepherd Boy
(E) The Villain Villagers
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 10 to 12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Hard
(A) Comfortably
(B) Calmly
(C) Tough
(D) Long
(E) Fast
Ans : (E)

11. Several
(A) Limited
(B) Large
(C) Few
(D) Many
(E) Unlimited
Ans : (D)

12. Useless
(A) Carefree
(B) Easy
(C) Fun
(D) Secure
(E) Futile
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 13 to 17) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

13. You can help (A) / yourself to some biscuits, (B) / although there are (C) / a less left. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

14. Each soldier were (A) / praised for his bravery, (B) / and was each (C) / given a medal. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

15. The aim of (A) / the organisation is to (B) / educate the public about (C) / the dangers of the smoking. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

16. People who smoke (A) / are not the only ones (B) / to be affect (C) / by lung cancer. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. There was no one`(A) /`from America (B) / between the many tourists (C) / in the train. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 24) Which of the group of words/phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the group of words printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

18. He has played for the national team in 65 matches so far—
(A) is playing
(B) have played
(C) playing
(D) play
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

19. Wait here until I will call you—
(A) am calling
(B) am going to call
(C) call
(D) shall call
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Since the car broke down we must get a taxi—
(A) must have got
(B) had got to get
(C) had to get
(D) getting
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

21. The students made some research on the benefits of irrigation in agriculture—
(A) did some researches
(B) did some research
(C) made research
(D) took some research
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

22. The children were enjoyed taken to the zoo—
(A) enjoyed being taken
(B) were enjoyed taking
(C) enjoyed taking
(D) enjoyed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

23. The park attendant told us not to throws litter on the ground—
(A) to don't throw
(B) not to have thrown
(C) not to throw
(D) not to thrown
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

24. There was too many people trying to get into the football stadium—
(A) There was too much
(B) There were too many
(C) There were too much
(D) It was too many
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 25 to 29) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence/group of sentences meaningfully complete in the context of the sentence.

25. Why do I always have to stay at home ? Anita …… her parents.
(A) questioned
(B) exclaimed
(C) said
(D) answered
(E) felt
Ans : (A)

26. My friends went to see the film …… our favourite actress was acting in it.
(A) if
(B) because
(C) so
(D) but
(E) also
Ans : (B)

27. …… we have a television set we do not watch anything on it.
(A) Although
(B) Inspite
(C) Besides
(D) But
(E) Just
Ans : (A)

28. We have not had a spare moment …… the morning.
(A) for
(B) since
(C) even
(D) by
(E) over
Ans : (C)

29. Amit is working …… for his examination.
(A) badly
(B) easily
(C) usually
(D) heavily
(E) hard
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 30 to 34) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

30. My friend (A) was bruised (B) quiet (C) badly in a recent accident. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

31. If you should (A) need more information, (B) please telefone (C) our main office. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

32. If you resist (A) the first temptation, (B) the next will be easier (C) to overcome. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

33. Stones (A) should not be throne (B) by those who live (C) in glass houses. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

34. Success (A) or failure (B) depends largely (C) on our own efferts. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 35 to 40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. The inscription read : Greed is the root of all evil, remember this and you will be a better man.
2. But there was no treasure there, only an inscription on the underside of the rock.
3. The Arab felt sure there was a great treasure hidden beneath it and worked hard to turn it over.
4. An Arab while crossing a desert came across a huge rock half buried in the sand.
5. After several hours he finally succeeded.
6. Engraved on the rock were words turn me over and you will benefit from it.\

35. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 1
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

40. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A rich landowner was on his deathbed. Gasping for breath, he told his three sons to dig under his bed when he was gone, and saying that, gave up his life. Some days later, the sons dug at the spot and unearthed three pots. …41… one above the other. The topmost pot contained mud; the middle pot contained dried cow dung and the …42… pot contained straw. Below this pot there was a silver coin. The brothers were puzzled. “Obviously, father meant to …43… some message to us through the pots and their contents,” said the oldest brother. ‘But what ?’ They …44… for a while but …45… of them could come up with an explanation.

Finally they decided to …46… their doctor who was also a family friend. The doctor laughed when the brothers put their problem before him. “Your father loved puzzles.” he said, “and I think he could not resist setting up one last one. The interpretation is simple. The topmost pot contains mud you say, that …47… he wants his eldest son to have his fields. The second pot contains cow
dung. It means he wants his second son to have his …48… of cattle. The last pot contains straw. Now straw is golden-coloured, that means he wants his youngest son to have all his gold.” The brothers were happy with the way their father had apportioned his wealth and marvelled at the doctor's …49…. “But one thing remains unexplained,” said the youngest brother. “The silver coin at the bottom of the pots.” “Your father knew you would come to consult me,” smiled the doctor. “The coin is my …50…”.

41. (A) looking
(B) only
(C) stand
(D) stood
(E) placed
Ans : (E)

42. (A) least
(B) lowest
(C) less
(D) deep
(E) lesser
Ans : (B)

43. (A) convey
(B) tell
(C) say
(D) order
(E) teach
Ans : (A)

44. (A) think
(B) thought
(C) ponder
(D) relaxed
(E) taught
Ans : (B)

45. (A) no
(B) one
(C) either
(D) some
(E) none
Ans : (E)

46. (A) go
(B) asked
(C) told
(D) consult
(E) take
Ans : (D)

47. (A) meaning
(B) telling
(C) suggesting
(D) reflecting
(E) means
Ans : (E)

48. (A) flock
(B) herd
(C) gathering
(D) school
(E) all
Ans : (B)

49. (A) wisdom
(B) suggestion
(C) effort
(D) brilliant
(E) witty
Ans : (A)

50. (A) friendship
(B) pot
(C) keep
(D) fee
(E) desire
Ans : (D)

Baroda Raj. Gramin Bank Officers Exam, 2011 : English Solved Paper

2011-12-21T20:09:00.000-08:00

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011
(Held on 13-3-2011)
General English : Solved Paper

Directions–(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

The chasm between India's flourishing cities and bleak rural hinterland is narrowing. Spread across 650,000 villages, with an average population of l,100, rural villagers were long ...(1)... by city dwellers as primitive, impoverished and irrelevant, something to drive past on the way to something else. That is no longer the ...(2) ... Anew prosperity is ...(3)... in rural India, with tens of millions entering the pressure-cooker-and-tele-vision-owning class and tens of thousands becoming sippers of Scotch, ...(4)... of premium tractors and drivers of multiple sedans.

The opening of this new frontier of consumer demand from 700 million people could tip India's role in the global economy from seller to buyer, from a vendor of outsourced skills to a source of consumers for the world's ...(5)....Mulinational corporations, appear increasingly ...(6)... to understand Indian villagers. Rural dwellers are now nearly twice as likely to be crorepatis as city dwellers in Bangalore, the high-technology hub, according to the National Council for Applied Economic Research. It may be a trickle, but India's urban prosperity is flowing to the countryside and well-to-do villages are early testing grounds of ...(7)... the benefits of India's economic makeover and opening to the world will flow to its villagers, many of them living in its poorest rural nooks. The ...(8)... of such villages will also add fuel to the debate over democracy's influence on economic development. India has been faulted for growing more lethargically than China, in part because of its democracy. But the new rural prosperity ...(9)... that the high cost democracy also has a hidden benefit. By compelling each politician to ...(10)... results to his own narrow constituency, democracy spreads economic change more thinly. But that in turn broadens the consensus in favour of change, perhaps making liberalization more sustainable in India than in China.

1. (A) wished
(B) awaited
(C) imagined
(D) abolished
(E) drawn
Ans : (C)

2. (A) question
(B) case
(C) feature
(D) issue
(E) views
Ans : (B)

3. (A) emerged
(B) visual
(C) associating
(D) sprouting
(E) instilling
Ans : (D)

4. (A) sellers
(B) owners
(C) makers
(D) marketers
(E) hirers
Ans : (B)

5. (A) price
(B) wares
(C) stuff
(D) commodity
(E) today
Ans : (E)

6. (A) aware
(B) disinterested
(C) keen
(D) intend
(E) tough
Ans : (C)

7. (A) really
(B) about
(C) since
(D) if
(E) whether
Ans : (A)

8. (A) transformation
(B) propensity
(C) downfall
(D) revolution
(E) decrease
Ans : (D)

9. (A) suggests
(B) narrates
(C) says
(D) show
(E) remarks
Ans : (E)

10. (A) derive
(B) distribute
(C) give
(D) seek
(E) deliver
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 11 to 15) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

11. NA8ARD has the responsibility of lay down the policies for the RRBs, to oversee their operations, provide refinance facilities, to monitor their performance and to attend their problems.
(A) to laid down
(B) of laying down
(C) on lays down
(D) for lay downs
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

12. Groundwater and surface water are traditionally concerned of rural communities, as those communities are almost exclusively served by well water.
(A) a tradition of concern
(B) traditions of concerning
(C) traditionally concerns
(D) tradition for concerned
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

13. The very publicised mid day meal scheme meant to reduce dropout rates in schools seems to be not yielding the desired results.
(A) much publicised
(B) many publicity
(C) too public
(D) little publicity of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

14. No like the urban schools and colleges, the schools in rural areas do not encourage the children to excel in extra-curricular activities.
(A) Similarly to
(B) Inspite of
(C) Unlike
(D) Despite
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

15. The government said that the iron levels in groundwater were higher than that prescribe in 254 districts.
(A) then those prescribe
(B) then that prescribed
(C) prescription
(D) than those prescribed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 16 to 20) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non-agricultural activities and in productive expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment elasticities, as well as in an export strategy based on labour intensive exports.
(2) It is important because it creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for the involvement of the poor.
(3) If the growth is sourced upon those sectors of the economy or those activities that have a natural tendency to involve the poor in their expansion, such growth helps poverty eradication.
(4) Economic growth is important.
(5) But this involvement depends on the sources of growth and the nature of growth.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(6) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(6) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 21 to 25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. A model-based approach has been …………….to identify the factors that are …………….for the problems faced by the rural areas.
(A) pursued, guilty
(B) placed, accountable
(C) approved, made
(D) identified, liable
(E) adopted,. Responsible
Ans : (E)

22. Farm living is dependent on …………….environmental conditions, and in times of drought, flood or pestilence, survival becomes extremely …………….
(A) irregular, simple
(B) sedentary, dangerous
(C) erratic, easy
(D) unpredictable, problematic
(E) impulsive, tough
Ans : (D)

23. It is also a …………….of industrialization that farms become more mechanized, putting many labourers out of …………….
(A) result, work
(B) point, city
(C) idea, labour
(D) consequence, bounds
(E) cause, employment
Ans : (A)

24. since their inception, regional rural banks (RRBs) have taken …………….roots and have become a sort of. …………….part of the rural credit structure in India.
(A) many, frivolous
(B) to, vital
(C) several, small
(D) all, essential
(E) deep, inseparable
Ans : (E)

25. Any new proposal in the education sector should …………….the chances for the rural poor to have a …………….education at par with their urban counter parts in their villages themselves.
(A) increase, well
(B) improve, good
(C) search, standard
(D) glorify, better
(E) lessen, regular
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 26 to 35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i. e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. Neither the opera singers or (A) the general public had seen as (B) much glitter (C) in years as they did during Turandot, the finale (D) of the opera season. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. His story about the strange beings (A) in a space ship was so (B) incredulous (C) that (D) no one believed him. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

28. The hot air ballon had burst as they were preparing (A) for launch, (B) and the platform had broke (C) as a result. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. I fail to understand (A) why (B) you are seeking my council (C) after the way you ignored (D) my advice last week. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. Ann Landers, whose (A) name is a household word to millions of (B) readers, are (C) well-known (D) for family advice. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

31. Between you and I, (A) the highway department must review bridge construction across the country (B) in order to (C) avoid major catastrophes resulting from (D) mental fatigue. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Child custody in surrogate mother cases is just one of the many (A) controversial issues which (B) are (C) currently being decided upon (D) in the courts. No error (E)
Ans : (D)

33. John usually eats a quick lunch, ignoring (A) the question of whether (B) what (C) he eats is healthy or (D) not. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

34. If (A) you continue to drive so recklessly, (B) you are likely (C) to have a serious accident in the very (D) near future. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

35. The general along with (A) the members of his general staff (B) seem (C) to favour immediate retaliation (D) at this time. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 36 to 43) Read the passage carefully and answers the questions correctly.

This is a time when the demography of our population is changing significantly to drive organized retail growth. India now has a large young working population with a median age of 24. The number of nuclear families in urban areas is growing fast. Then there is the increase in working women population. Add to these the emerging opportunities in the service sector. Lifestyle habits are shifting from austerity to complete self-indulgence and Indians are now unapologetic about spending lavishly on non-essential goods such as luxury watches, cars, and hi-tech products.

India can be said to have entered the second phase of retail growth when there is high-speed growth. There are retail chains along with global players which are trying to tap the country's vast potential. Bringing all these under one roof are mega malls. Now, top names in inter-national malls are also eyeing the Indian market. It is only later that the retailing scene will move to the other phases when the fruits of rapid growth will result in economies of scale and greater efficiency leading finally to consolidation through mergers and acquistions. Thus, retailing in India has a very long haul ahead.

In India for a long time a large chunk of retail outlets were grocery shops. This pattern had been changing in recent years, in urban and rural markets. Of late, India's largely rural population has also caught the eye of retailers looking for new areas of growth. A slew of supermarket chains are set to storm the rural areas of the country as corporates realize the huge potential of the untapped market. A well-known brand launched the country's first rural mall, offering a diverse product range from FMCG to electronic appliances to automobiles, attempting to provide farmers a one-stop destination for all of their needs. Other companies are launching 'one-stop shops' for farmers and their communities too.

As clear from the story of some of the companies already established, organized retail sector can bring a revolutionary change in rural India unless it goes for quick short-term gains. With Walmart famous for its 'Always Low Prices' coming to India, Indian farmers and rural craftsmen can hope for a better direct deal. Retailing does not benefit just the consumer. It can give huge benefits to other industries, to government, and to the entire economy.

The rural market is no longer a non-player in the retail game. It is now accounting for about one-third of the market for most durable and non-durable products. Even manufacturers are developing new products with the rural consumer in mind besides using village-oriented marketing strategies for brand promotions. Whether it is an actress promoting a chocolate of a cricketer wowing village lads with a soft drink, both ad makers as well as top company honchos know where to put their money and how. The rural market is no longer of hypothetical empirical value but is well researched and reached by most companies looking to tap India's vast and abundant bounty.

The Indian retail scenario is poised for a quantum leap. Not only are newer names set to dot the retail landscape but also new and emerging retail formats will drive the diversity of the fast-changing retail backdrop. Organized Retail means 'Big Stores' a common myth. ..nothing can be further from the truth. In its very essence, organized retailing is about "aggregating value" and what shape, size and configuration your customer facing entity takes is largely a function of your offer and proposition. A growing population, a young workforce and zooming consumer confidence will fuel the expansion of the retail sector. As organized retail in rural India awaits the arrival of known companies, current majors are expanding their retail operations by setting up more stores, entering new states and offering newer product categories. A shift from selling agri-inputs will help these stores target the non-farming segments. It is a little known fact that, while 25% of the rural population is not engaged in agriculture, it earns 50% of the rural income. The retail
market is the next growth frontier for corporate India. It offers an opportunity for a large player to build a Rs. 40,000 cr retail business spanning multiple categories by 2015 (at current prices). However, to capitalize on the opportunity, a player needs to be aggressive in his outlook and build scale quickly.

36. What according to the author is 'Organized Retailing' ?
(A) Setting up a number of stores in a short span of time in order to achieve visibility
(B) Selling the same products under different names
(C) Assigning a higher value to all products so that a greater margin of profit is attained in a shorter span of time
(D) Adapting one's strategy of selling or making products according to customer needs and demands
(E) Building bigger stores to attract more number of people
Ans : (D)

37. What according to the author, is not well known ?
(A) Encouraging the retail industries to set up stores in the rural areas will lead to disaster
(B) Half of the income in rural areas comes from people engaged in non-agricultural activities
(C) People in the rural areas are unwilling to spend on products other than those related to
agriculture
(D) People in the rural areas have a very limited spending capacity because of low incomes
(E) Rural areas have a high potential for success of retail industries
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the reason/s for the change in the spending habits of Indians ?
(1) Increase in the number of youngsters securing jobs
(2) Increase in the number of employed women
(3) Increase in the number of nuclear families
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following can aptly replace the phrase 'caught the eye of' as used in the passage ?
(A) made a demand for
(B) been painful to
(C) been noticed by
(D) paid attention to
(E) sought approval of
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Retail Industry – The Way Ahead For Farmers
(B) Retail Industry – Growth Opportunities
(C) Walmart and the Retail Industry
(D) Challenges faced by the Retail Industry
(E) The History of Retail Industry
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true about rural market, as given in the passage ?
(1) Product are being designed to suit rural requirements.
(2) Companies are taking into account rural settings while conceptualizing advertisements.
(3) It forms around 33 per cent of the consumers of most retail products.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following is true about Walmart, as given in the passage ?
(1) Walmart achieved a fair amount of success in smaller towns of the US.
(2) Walmart has presence in all the countries.
(3) Goods sold at Walmart are priced low.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (3)
Ans : (E)

43. What is the present situation of retail growth in India ?
(A) The growth of the retail sector is progressing at a medium pace and India lacks the resources to capitalize on the potential market
(B) India's growth in the retail sector can be compared to the growth of the US in the same
(C) India has a huge untapped market for the retail sector which at present only the international companies are using to their advantage
(D) India is witnessing rapid growth in the retail sector with most companies trying to make maximum of the available market
(E) India is witnessing a lot of mergers and acquisitions in the retail sector
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 44 to 47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. NUCLEAR
(A) One
(B) Central
(C) Single
(D) Extended
(E) Joint
Ans : (C)

45. ZOOMING
(A) Fast
(B) Whizzing
(C) Increasing
(D) Burning
(E) Quick
Ans : (B)

46. AGGRESSIVE
(A) Forceful
(B) Hostile
(C) Violent
(D) Antagonistic
(E) Destructive
Ans : (C)

47. DURABLE
(A) Perishable
(B) Existing
(C) Settlement
(D) Long-lasting
(E) Ever-lasting
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 48 to 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. DIVERSITY
(A) Fairness
(B) Uniformity
(C) Reliability
(D) Difference
(E) Equality
Ans : (B)

49. UNAPOLOGETIC
(A) Guilty
(B) Reformed
(C) Unrepentant
(D) Ignorant
(E) Accountable
Ans : (A)

50. UNTAPPED
(A) Over-insistent
(B) More frequent
(C) Available
(D) Intact
(E) Over-exploited
Ans : (E)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank GK 2011 Solved Paper

2011-12-19T20:07:00.000-08:00

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011
(Held on 13-3-2011)
General Knowledge : Solved Paper

1. First share market in India was established in which of the following cities ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following is not decided by the Finance Minister while presenting Union Budget every year ?
(A) Rate of Income Tax
(B) Expenditure on Defence Services
(C) Relief packages to various sections of the society
(D) Repo and Reverse Repo
(E) Revenue Expected from various sources
Ans : (D)

3. Which country is at the top in production of silk in the world ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) South Korea
(E) China
Ans : (E)

4. Who amongst the following is the President of France at present ?
(A) Hu Jintao
(B) Elena Vesnina
(C) Jakaya Kikwete
(D) Dilma Rousseff
(E) Nicolas Sarkozy
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is grown as oil seed ?
(A) Mustard
(B) Garlic
(C) Safed Musli
(D) Urad
(E) Clove
Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following is not an agricultural commodity ?
(A) Mango
(B) Clove
(C) Alum
(D) Onion
(E) Potato
Ans : (C)

7. Which organization is being given the status of Micro Finance Regulating Authority as per the bill introduced in the parliament ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) SBI
Ans : (D)

8. GNP stands for—
(A) Group Net Product
(B) Gross National Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) Grand National Product
Ans : (B)

9. Some rural people still prefer to go to which of the following non institutional source for their credit needs ?
(A) Micro Finance Institutions
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Money Lenders
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Nano car is launched by which of the following industrial groups ?
(A) Bajaj Group
(B) Maruti Suzuki Group
(C) Mahindra & Mahindra Group
(D) Reliance Group
(E) Tata Group
Ans : (E)

11. Term 'Balance of Payment' is used in relation to which of the following ?
(A) Diplomatic Relations
(B) Exports and Imports
(C) Annual production in a factory
(D) Deficit in Union Budget
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following rates/ratios is not covered under the RBI Monetory and credit policy ?
(A) Bank rate
(B) Exchange rate of foreign currencies
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reverse repo rate
(E) Cash reserve ratio
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following has given, Aadhaar' as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. Contribution to Prime Minister's Relief Fund enjoys Income Tax benefit Under various sections of the act upto the limit of—
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 100%
(D) 30%
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following is not a food crop ?
(A) Paddy
(B) Wheat
(C) Bajra
(D) Jowar
(E) Jatropha
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following is not an employment generating programme of Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) PMGSY
(C) SGSRY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) OPAP
Ans : (E)

17. When the loan is granted by a bank for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. The term 'Power of Attorney' refers to……………
(A) Power entrusted to a person of authority
(B) A mandate to withdraw money from someone's Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following gamest sports was not included in Commonwealth Games 2010 ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Weight lifting
(D) Golf
(E) Boxing
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is/are true about the 'Gram Nyayalayas' ?
1. These courts will be mobile courts and will function at Panchayat level.
2. The Magistrate of these courts will go to the villages in their area of coverage and will dispose off cases of the villages there itself.
3. Only civil suits related to the property of Rs. 5,00,000 and above will be disposed off in this way.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

21. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ?
(A) Zinc
(B) Platinum
(C) Uranium
(D) Nickel
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ?
1. Wind Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Nuclear Energy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

24. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) The Act is now know as Indira Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) The Act is now applicable to all the districts of the country
(C) Minimum wage fixed under this Act is now Rs. 250 per day
(D) Employment is given now for 200 days in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation IFRS as used in corporate/financial sector ?
(A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting System
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. 'Heavy Water' is used in which of the following fields ?
(A) Thermal Power
(B) Cement industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Nuclear Power
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. At present who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Shri C. Chidambaram
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

28. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) Adequate Capital adequacy ratio
(B) Only few branches in Metro centres
(C) More and more branches in Rural areas should be opened
(D) Core banking mode of operations
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

29. Amendments in which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)

30. As per the reports in various newspapers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Bank Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

31. When is Income tax required to be deducted by the banks at source on interest accrued and paid by them on the fixed deposits? When the……………
(A) amount of interest accrued/payable is more than Rs. 5000 p. a.
(B) amount of interest accrued/payable is more than Rs. 10000 p. a.
(C) Interest is more than Rs. 20,000 p. a.
(D) customer is not valuable to the bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following methods is being adopted by Banks for calculating and applying interest on Savings Bank accounts ?
(A) On monthly products based on minimum balance between 10th and last working day
(B) Daily balance is counted and interest is paid accordingly
(C) On average Quarterly balance
(D) On average half yearly balance
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

33. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme 'Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana' (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural households
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (C)

35. 'Pulitzer Prize' is given in the field of…………….
(A) Literature
(B) Social service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following terms/trophies is related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Trump
(C) Grand slam
(D) Tee
(E) Ashes
Ans : (E)

37. Who amongst the following is the President of Pakistan ?
(A) Yusuf Raza Gillani
(B) Nawaz Sharif
(C) Shah Mehmood Qureshi
(D) Asif Ali Zardari
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006, is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for 'Global Warming' ?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Radioactivity
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

40. OPEC is a group of countries which are—
(A) Exporting oil
(B) Producing cotton
(C) Rich and developed
(D) Developing and poor
(E) Nuclear powers
Ans : (A)

41. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following ?
(A) Insurance
(B) Banking
(C) Stock Market
(D) Transport
(E) Telecom
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) A Bend in the River
(B) A China Passage
(C) A Suitable Boy
(D) Five Point Someone
(E) A House for Mr. Biswas
Ans : (D)

43. VAT stands for-
(A) Value And Tax
(B) Value Added Tax
(C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Technique
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. 'Handshaking' in Networking parlance means—
(A) Connecting computers to a hub
(B) Distributed Networks
(C) Having same operating system on different computers
(D) Sending e-mail
(E) Receiving e-mails
Ans : (A)

45. 'Richter Scale' is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(B) Intensity of Earthquake
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Basketball
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans : (E)

47. Which of the following books is written by Arun Shourie ?
(A) A Bend in the River
(B) A Brush with Life
(C) A Secular Agenda
(D) A suitable Boy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following aptly defines the term Financial–literacy ?
1. How to use credit responsibly
2. How to manage money
3. How to minimize financial risks
4. How to derive long term benefits from savings
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Both 3 and 4
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of cinema ?
(A) Dada Saheb Phalke
(B) Arjuna
(C) Booker Prize
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

50. What is the maximum number of free transactions that can be undertaken by a customer by using ATM of other bank in a month ?
(A) 2 per month
(B) 5 per month
(C) 10 per month
(D) 15 per month
(E) No such restriction
Ans : (B)

आगामी प्रतियोगिता परीक्षाएं 2012

2011-12-11T10:45:00.000-08:00

2012

● जनवरी – राजस्थान स्टेनोग्राफर प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● जनवरी – राजस्थान लेखाकार एवं कनिष्ठ लेखाकार सीधी भर्ती संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● जनवरी – बिहार कर्मचारी चयन आयोग स्नातकस्तरीय प्रथम प्रारम्भिक संयुक्त प्रतियोगिता परीक्षा–2010
● 8 जनवरी – आंध्र प्रदेश अध्यापक पात्रता परीक्षा जनवरी–2012
● 8 जनवरी – मालवा ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 जनवरी – आंध्रा प्रगति ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 जनवरी – उत्तर प्रदेश सम्मिलित राज्य/प्रवर अधीनस्थ सेवा (प्रारम्भिक) परीक्षा–2009
● 15 जनवरी – छत्तीसगढ़ ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट (मल्टीपर्पस) भर्ती परीक्षा
● 15 जनवरी – आंध्रा प्रगति ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 15 जनवरी – बिहार क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा
● 22 जनवरी – एल.आई.सी. हाउसिंग फाइनेंस लिमिटेड असिस्टेंट भर्ती परीक्षा
● 22 जनवरी – सिंडीकेंट बैंक कृषि सहायक क्लर्क संवर्ग परीक्षा–2011-12
● 22 जनवरी – राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स स्केल-I एवं II भर्ती परीक्षा
● 22 जनवरी – छत्तीसगढ़ ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स (स्केल I, II एवं III) भर्ती परीक्षा
● 22 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश संविदाशाला शिक्षक (श्रेणी-3) पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● 22 जनवरी – एस.एस.सी. भारतीय खाद्य निगम सहायक ग्रेड II एवं टाइपिस्ट परीक्षा–2012
● 29 जनवरी – साउथ इण्डियन बैंक क्लर्क भर्ती परीक्षा
● 29 जनवरी – रीवा सीधी ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट भर्ती परीक्षा
● 29 जनवरी – राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट भर्ती परीक
● 29 जनवरी – संघ लोक सेवा आयोग स्पेशल क्लास रेलवे अप्रेन्टिसेज परीक्षा–2012
● 29 जनवरी – केन्द्रीय अध्यापक पात्रता परीक्षा (CTET) जनवरी–2012

● 4-5 फरवरी – एस.एस.सी. भारतीय खाद्य निगम सहायक ग्रेड III परीक्षा–2012
● 5 फरवरी – रीवा सीधी ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स स्केल-I, II एवं III भर्ती परीक्षा
● 12 फरवरी – जयपुर थार ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 जनवरी, 2012)
● 12 फरवरी – मध्य प्रदेश पुलिस काँस्टेबिल भर्ती परीक्षा
● 12 फरवरी – उत्तरांचल ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट भर्ती परीक्षा
● 12 फरवरी – सम्मिलित रक्षा सेवा परीक्षा (I)–2012
● 12 फरवरी – जवाहर नवोदय विद्यालय प्रवेश परीक्षा (कक्षा-VI)
● 19 फरवरी – नवोदय विद्यालय समिति स्नातकोतर शिक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा (अन्तिम तिथि– 13 जनवरी, 2012)
● 19 फरवरी – मध्य प्रदेश उच्च न्यायालय जबलपुर सहायक ग्रेड–3 परीक्षा (अन्तिम तिथि– 23 जनवरी, 2012)
● 19 फरवरी – जयपुर थार ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स स्केल–I, II एवं III परीक्षा (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 जनवरी, 2012)
● 19 फरवरी – झारखण्ड ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स स्केल–I, II एवं III परीक्षा
● 19 फरवरी – उत्तरांचल ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स स्केल-I भर्ती परीक्षा
● 26 फरवरी – मध्य प्रदेश सहायक ग्रेड–3 / निम्न श्रेणी लिपिक / पंजीयन लिपिक संयुक्त चयन परीक्षा, 2011 (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 18 जनवरी, 2012)
● 26 फरवरी – भारतीय सेना में धर्म शिक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 4 मार्च – मध्य प्रदेश उत्कृष्टता विद्यालय / मॉडल स्कूल चयन प्रवेश परीक्षा (कक्षा IX के लिए)
● 4 मार्च – झारखण्ड ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा
● 18 मार्च – स्टेट बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया लिपिकीय संवर्ग भर्ती परीक्षा (SC/ST/OBC वर्ग के लिए) (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 20 जनवरी, 2012)
● 8 अप्रैल – छत्तीसगढ़ सूबेदार / उपनिरीक्षक संवर्ग / प्लाटून कमाण्डर प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा, 2011
● 8 अप्रैल – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर इंजीनियर (सिविल एवं इलेक्ट्रीकल) परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 फरवरी, 2012)
● 21 अप्रैल – उत्तर प्रदेश बी.एड. संयुक्त प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012-13 (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 मार्च, 2012)
● 22 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन काँस्टेबिल (जनरल ड्यूटी) एवं राइफलमैन (जनरल ड्यूटी) भर्ती (अन्तिम तिथि– 4 जनवरी, 2012)
● 29 अप्रैल – ऑल इण्डिया इंजीनियरिंग / आर्किटेक्चर प्रवेश परीक्षा–2012
● 6 मई – छत्तीसगढ़ पी.एस.सी. राज्य सेवा परीक्षा, 2011 (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 9 फरवरी, 2012)
● 13-14 मई – छत्तीसगढ़ सूबेदार उपनिरीक्षक संवर्ग / प्लाटून कमाण्डर मुख्य परीक्षा, 2011
● 27 मई – एस.एस.सी. केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन सब-इंस्पेक्टर्स एवं इन्टेलीजेन्स ऑफीसर एनसीबी परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 16 मार्च, 2012)
● 1 एवं 8 जुलाई – एस.एस.सी. संयुक्त स्नातक स्तर (चरण–I) परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 20 अप्रैल, 2012)
● 29 जुलाई – एस.एस.सी. स्टेनोग्राफर्स ग्रेड "C" एवं "D" परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 25 मई, 2012)
● 15-16 सितम्बर – एस.एस.सी. संयुक्त स्नातक स्तर (चरण-II) परीक्षा–2012
● 21 अक्टूबर – एस.एस.सी. संयुक्त हायर सेकण्डरी स्तर (10+2) डाटा एन्ट्री ऑपरेटर एल.डी.सी. इत्यादि परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 अगस्त, 2012)
● 18 नवम्बर – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर ट्रांसलेटर्स (CSOLS) / जूनियर हिन्दी ट्रांसलेटर परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 5 अक्टूबर, 2012)

IBPS Bank PO Exam, 2011 : Computer Knowledge Solved Paper

2011-12-07T08:22:00.000-08:00

Bank Probationary Officers Common Written Exam., 2011
(Held on 18-9-2011)
Computer Knowledge: Solved Paper

1. Computer uses the……….number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is–
(A) Memory-only
(B) Write-only
(C) Once-only
(D) Run-only
(E) Read-only
Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document ?
(A) CTRL+A
(B) ALT+F5
(C) SHIFT+A
(D) CTRL+K
(E) CTRL+H
Ans : (A)

4. ……….are 'attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of–
(A) control
(B) output
(C) processing
(D) feedback
(E) input
Ans : (E)

6. A Web site's main page is called its–
(A) Home Page
(B) Browser Page
(C) Search Page
(D) Bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is–
(A) multiprogramming
(B) multitasking
(C) time-sharing
(D) multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as–
(A) an ASCII code
(B) a magnetic tape
(C) an OCR scanner
(D) a bar code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
(A) Fit to Form
(B) Format
(C) Autosize
(D) Contents
(E) AutoFit
Ans : (E)

10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends ?
(A) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(B) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(C) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(D) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(E) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer
Ans : (C)

11. Reusable optical storage will typica1ly have the acronym–
(A) CO
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) ROS
Ans : (D)

12. The most common type of storage devices are–
(A) persistent
(B) optical
(C) magnetic
(D) flash
(E) steel
Ans : (D)

13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be–
(A) distributed
(B) free
(C) centralized
(D) open source
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a–
(A) hacker
(B) analyst
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) spammer
Ans : (A)

15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is–
(A) dragging
(B) dropping
(C) right-clicking
(D) shift-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click–
(A) UPPERCASE
(B) UPPER ALL
(C) CAPS LOCK
(D) Lock Upper
(E) Large Size
Ans : (A)

17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a–
(A) tab
(B) cell
(C) box
(D) range
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

18. You can keep your personal files / folders in–
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. In Word you can force a page break–
(A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(B) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter
(C) By using the Insert/Section Break
(D) By changing the font size of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. A DVD is an example of a(n) –
(A) hard disk
(B) optical disc
(C) output device
(D) solid-state storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. The default view in Excel is……….view.
(A) Work
(B) Auto
(C) Normal
(D) Roman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called–
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEC
(E) downsizing
Ans : (A)

23. ……….is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(A) End
(B) Staft
(C) Turnoff
(D) Restart
(E) Reboot
Ans : (B)

25. The contents of……….are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off–
(A) RAM
(B) Motherboard
(C) Secondary storage device
(D) Primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n) –
(A) supercomputer
(B) minicomputer
(C) laptop
(D) server
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. The……….folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Drafts
(B) Outbox
(C) Address Book
(D) Sent Items
(E) Inbox
Ans : (B)

29. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called–
(A) a database management system
(B) batch processing
(C) a real-time system
(D) an on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. The……….enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (C)

31. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards ?
(A) BUS
(B) CPU
(C) USB
(D) MIDI
(E) MINI
Ans : (C)

32. You can……….a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results.
(A) refine
(B) expand
(C) load
(D) query
(E) slowdown
Ans : (A)

33. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) Floppy
(C) CPU
(D) CO-ROM
(E) ROM
Ans : (E)

34. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ?
(A) Name box
(B) Row Headings
(C) Formula bar
(D) Task pane
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a–
(A) red wire
(B) blue cord
(C) tower
(D) modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Video processors consist of……….and………., which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use–
(A) e-mail
(B) FTP
(C) instant message
(D) Telnet
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. To reload a Web page, press the……….button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)

39. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website–
(A) Document and report generation
(B) Database maintenance
(C) Transaction processing startup
(D) Data Entry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. A(n) ……….is a special visual and audio effect applied in Power-point to text or content.
(A) animation
(B) flash
(C) wipe
(D) dissolve
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. When the pointer is positioned on a……….it is shaped like a hand.
(A) grammar error
(B) Formatting error
(C) Screen Tip
(D) Spelling error
(E) hyperlink
Ans : (E)

42. Personal computers can be connected together to form a–
(A) server
(B) supercomputer
(C) network
(D) enterprise
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

43. A……….is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (E)

44. ……….are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Control structures
(C) Reserved words
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

45. Mobile Commerce is best described as–
(A) The use of Kiosks in marketing
(B) Transporting products
(C) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices
(D) Using notebook PC's in marketing
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

46. Which of, the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information–
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. The computer abbreviation KB usually means–
(A) Key Block
(B) Kernel Boot
(C) Key Byte
(D) Kit Bit
(E) Kilo Byte
Ans : (E)

48. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
(A) Configuration
(B) Download
(C) Storage
(D) Upload
(E) Installation
Ans : (D)

49. In Excel……….allows users to bring together copies of work-books that other users have worked on independently.
(A) Copying
(B) Merging
(C) Pasting
(D) Compiling
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large, amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) An of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

2011-12-04T10:41:00.000-08:00

January
● Rajasthan Stenographer Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● RPSC Accountant and Junior Accountant Combined Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● Bihar Staff Selection Commission Graduate Level First Elementary Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (January)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 15)
● Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (January 22)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Techer Eligibility Test, 2011 for Category-3 (January 22)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Middle Management (Scale II) and Officer Junior Management (Scale-I) Exam. (January 22)
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade II and Typist Exam., 2012 (January 22)
● Syndicate Bank Agricultural Assistant in Clerical Cadre Exam., 2011-12
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● U.P.S.C. Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2012 (January 29)
● Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Jan 2012 (January 29)
● South Indian Bank Clerk Exam. (January 29)

February
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade III Exam., 2012 (February 4-5)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 5)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class VI) (February 12)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2012 (February 12)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Madhya Pradesh Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (February 12)
● Karnataka Bank P.O. Exam. (February 12) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 10 January, 2012)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 19)
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Madhya Pradesh High Court Assistant Grade 3 Exam. (February 19) (Closing Date : 23 January, 2012)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Scale I Officer Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Chartered Accountants and Specialist Officers Recruitament Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 16 January, 2012)
● Army Religious Teacher Exam (February 26)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Grade 3/Lower Division Clerk/Registration Clerk Combined Selection Exam., 2011 (February 26) (Online Closing Date : 18 January, 2012)

March
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Madhya Pradesh Excellence School Entrance Test for Class IX (March 4)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office-Assistant) Exam. (March 4) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Common Written Exam. (CWE) for Specialist Officers (March 11) (Online Closing Date : 21 January, 2012)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. for SC/ST/OBC (March 18) (Online Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)

April
● SSC Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Exam., 2012 (April 8) (Closing Date : 10 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector Cadre/Platoon Commander Pre. Exam., 2011 (April 8) (Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)
● Uttar Pradesh B. Ed. Joint Entrance Exam., 2012-13 (April 21) (Closing Date : 10 March, 2012)
● Recruitment of Constables (GD) and Riflemen (GD) in CAPFs 2012 (BSF/CRPF/CISF/SSB/ITBPF/Assam Rifles) (April 22)
● All India Engineering/Architecture Entrance Exam., 2012 (April 29)

May
● Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission State Services Exam., 2011 (May 6) (Online Closing Date : 9 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector/Platoon Commander Main Exam., 2011 (May 13-14)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CPOs and Intelligence Officer in NCB Exam., 2012 (May 27) (Closing Date : 16 March, 2012)
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1&8) (Closing Date : 20 April, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade 'C' & 'D' Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Oerator LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date : 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date : 5 October, 2012)

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam, 2011 : English Language (Fully Solved)

2011-12-01T07:54:00.000-08:00

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 12-6-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions– (Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a village by the Ganges, there once lived a Brahmin. He was a religious and God-fearing man. He earned his living by performing prayers in other people's home. One day the Brahmin was called to the neighbouring village to perform some ceremony. In return for his services, he received a goat as a present.

The Brahmin was very pleased and he set off for home with a goat on his shoulders, he thought to himself, "this was a generous family, to have given me a goat. My wife and children will be very pleased. As he walked down the path to his village he did not notice that he was being followed by three thieves. "We have to get that plump goat" said the first thief. It will make a great dinner for us," said the second thief. "We need to think of a plan fast," said the third. The three thieves then decided to fool the Brahmin.

The first thief approached the Brahmin saying "Dear Brahmin, you are a holy man, Why are you carrying a dirty dog on your shoulders ?" "A dirty dog," can't you see that it is a poor little goat. Are you blind ?" said the Brahmin angrily. The first thief laughed and walked away.

The Brahmin looked at the goat, indeed it was a goat, and so he resumed his journey homeward. A little further down the path, the Brahmin came across the second thief. The second thief said in astonishment, "You are a holy man, why are you carrying a dead calf on your shoulders”? The Brahmin was furious, "This is a live goat and not a dead calf."

The Brahmin had barely walked some distance when the third thief came running waving his arm towards the Brahmin "Drop that donkey at once, If people see you carrying a donkey on your shoulders, what will they think of you ?" By now the Brahmin was very confused. Three different people had told him that he was carrying an animal other than a goat. Something must be wrong he thought. "This is not a goat; this must be some monster that keeps changing its form." The terrified Brahmin threw the goat and ran home as fast as he could.

The three thieves had a great laugh. They had succeeded in their plan. They picked up the goat and left. How foolish the Brahmin had been to have believed them.

1. Why did the Brahmin let go off the goat ?
(A) He believed the first thief
(B) He believed the second thief
(C) He believed the third thief
(D) He thought the goat was a monster
(E) He did not want the goat
Ans : (D)

2. How did the Brahmin get the goat ?
(A) He bought it from the market
(B) He stole it from the three thieves
(C) It was given to him as a present
(D) He found the lost goat while on his way home
(E) He took it on loan
Ans : (C)

3. The thieves were following the Brahmin because-
(A) he was carrying a nice plump goat
(B) they wanted his blessings
(C) they did not know the way to the village
(D) he was a rich man
(E) he was unknown to them
Ans : (A)

4. How did the Brahmin earn his living ?
(A) By selling goats
(B) By performing prayer's
(C) By making sacrifices
(D) By donations
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. The various forms taken by the goat were-
(A) Form of a dirty dog
(B) Form of a dead calf
(C) Form of a donkey
(D) All (A), (B) and (C)
(E) Only (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

6. Why was the Brahmin confused ?
(A) He noticed three different people following him to his village
(B) His wife was upset to see him with the plump goat
(C) He was surprised that the goat could take so many different forms
(D) Three different people told him he was carrying an animal other than a goat
(E) He lost his way to the village after performing the ceremony
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. Resumed
(A) Started
(B) Commenced
(C) Continued
(D) Changed
(E) Directed
Ans : (C)

8. Generous
(A) Kind
(B) Rich
(C) Selfish
(D) Liberal
(E) Fortunate
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q.9 and 10) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Plump
(A) Hungry
(B) Thin
(C) Stout
(D) Pampered
(E) Innocent
Ans : (C)

10. Terrified
(A) Baffled
(B) Alarmed
(C) Confused
(D) Scared
(E) Fearless
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether 1here is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

11. The bus waiting (A) / for all the passengers (B) / to enter (C) / before it took off. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

12. Daily prayer and meditation (A) / is the keys (B) / to a peaceful (C) / and happy life. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

13. The fruit vendor (A) / would rather (B) / let the fruit get spoiling than (C) / sell them for a lesser price. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

14. The police making (A) / everyone leave (B) / the building premises (C) / immediately. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

15. Mother and I (A) / generally go to the store (B) / and pick up food items (C) / for the charitable. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. You will have to undergo a ………………….of tests before the interview.
(A) large
(B) series
(C) design
(D) booklet
(E) delegation
Ans : (B)

17. If you………………….fast, we will reach on time.
(A) journey
(B) travel
(C) walk
(D) talk
(E) react
Ans : (C)

18. The boy was curious to know what was ………………….the parcel.
(A) into
(B) with
(C) in
(D) beyond
(E) within
Ans : (C)

19. For every school going child, studying is a………………….
(A) skill
(B) success
(C) achievement
(D) luxury
(E) priority
Ans : (E)

20. The Board members could not arrive at a ………………….regarding the employee.
(A) judgement
(B) progress
(C) policy
(D) consensus
(E) action
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 21–25) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.

21. (A) Dimention
(B) Enlighten
(C) Canvass
(D) Unfortunate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)

22. (A) Raging
(B) Extensive
(C) Priviledge
(D) Exorbitant
(E) All Correct
Ans : (C)

23. (A) Respectable
(B) Excessive
(C) Lament
(D) Manupilate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)

24. (A) Presentable
(B) Commodity
(C) Exept
(D) Rebate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (C)

25. (A) Continuos
(B) Mourn
(C) Leisure
(D) Rampant
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) So the Sun retired behind a cloud, and the Wind began to blow hard upon the traveller.
(b) The Sun and the Wind were disputing who was stronger amongst them.
(c) But the harder he blew the more closely the traveller wrapped his coat around him.
(d) Then the Sun came out and shone in all his glory upon the traveller, who soon found it too hot to walk with his coat on.
(e) Suddenly they saw a traveller walking down the road, and the Sun said, "I see a way to settle our dispute"
(f) Whichever of us can cause the traveller below to take off his coat shall be regarded as the stronger one.

26. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)

27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (d)
(B) (b)
(C) (e)
(D) (c)
(E) (a)
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (a)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (e)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (a)
(C) (f)
(D) (e)
(E) (c)
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 31–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a pair of geese and a tortoise and the three were the best of friends. One day they were faced by a huge drought and the lake in which they lived was ...(31)... up. They ...(32)... to leave the lake and look for new lake, but the tortoise could not ...(33)... So, the geese thought of a ...(34)..., whereby, the tortoise would have to hold a piece of stick by its mouth which would be ...(35)... by the two geese. The only condition was that the tortoise should not. speak or it would ...(36) ...from the stick to his death.
The tortoise agreed to be ...(37) ….

But on seeing this strange ...(38)..., people on the way started laughing at the tortoise. Unable to control his ...(39)..., he spoke aloud "What are they ...(40)... about ?" and so he fell to his death.

31. (A) rising
(B) vaporising
(C) soaring
(D) soaking
(E) drying
Ans : (E)

32. (A) advised
(B) confided
(C) decided
(D) thought
(E) suggested
Ans : (C)

33. (A) understand
(B) swim
(C) fly
(D) talk
(E) think
Ans : (C)

34. (A) magic
(B) plan
(C) game
(D) plot
(E) trick
Ans : (E)

35. (A) agreed
(B) manufactured
(C) designed
(D) carried
(E) produced
Ans : (D)

36. (A) balance
(B) choke
(C) fall
(D) slipped
(E) hang
Ans : (C)

37. (A) disciplined
(B) rescued
(C) flew
(D) good
(E) silent
Ans : (B)

38. (A) bargain
(B) arrangement
(C) friendship
(D) matrix
(E) object
Ans : (B)

39. (A) excitement
(B) grip
(C) curiosity
(D) destiny
(E) devotion
Ans : (C)

40. (A) looking
(B) talking
(C) thinking
(D) pointing
(E) laughing
Ans : (E)

Indian Overseas Bank Clerk Exam, 2011 : Solved Paper

2011-11-21T18:19:00.001-08:00

Indian Overseas Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 29-5-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions– (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a shrewd shopkeeper called Makarand. He had a friend called Mihir, who had saved a lot of money. Mihir was keen on going on a pilgrimage, but he did not know where to leave his precious savings. So he came to Makarand's shop and said, "My friend, I trust you more than anyone. Could you please look after my life's savings till I return from my pilgrimage?" Makarand pretended to be deep in thought, and then said, "I would rather not. Money spoils relationships. What if something happens to your money while you are away? You will no longer be my friend.’’

As Mihir stood there by his shop thinking about what his friend had just said, an old woman entered the shop and bought some things. One of the boys helping Makarand, gave her less change than he should have. Maka-rand saw this and pretended to scold the boy, he then ordered him to return the remaining money to the woman. Mihir not knowing that this was an act put up by Makarand to make him believe that he was honest, was convinced about his decision and said to Makarand, "I have decided. I will leave the money only with you." Makarand smiled. "Then let us do something. Let's take the bag of coins and bury it in a place that only you and I will know of. That way, even if something happens to me while you are away, you will know where your money is."

Mihir, simple that he was, thought this was a good idea and the two went and hid the bag in a secret place. Mihir left the next day on his pilgrimage, happy his savings were in safe hands. Six months later, Mihir returned. He dumped his luggage at home and went to dig out his bag of savings. But even though he searched and searched for his valuables, there was no sign of the bag anywhere. In panic, he ran to Makarand, who was busy in his shop. When Mihir asked him about the bag, Makarand pretended to be surprised, "But I did not go that way in all these months. Why don't you search for it again ?" he said, putting on his most innocent look. Mihir had no choice but to believe him. Sadly, he went home.

On the way, as luck would have it, he met the old woman he had seen in Makarand's shop. Seeing him sad, she asked him what the matter was. Mihir told her the whole story .Then she smiled and whispered a plan to him. Not long after, the woman came to Makarand's shop, carrying a big box. "Brother, I heard you are a good and honest man. My son went on a pilgrimage many months ago and has still not returned. I am worried and have decided to go and look for him. Will you look after my box of two hundred gold coins while I am away ?"

Makarand could not believe his luck. He was about to launch into his idea about hiding the box, when an angry Mihir entered the shop, 'Where is …………' but before he could complete his sentence; Makarand, afraid of being accused in front of the old woman, said quickly, “I forgot. I had seen some pigs digging around there and had removed the bag just to keep it safe. Here it is.” And he handed Mihir the bag he had stolen many months ago.

Now, the old woman pretended she was seeing Mihir for the first time, "Son, did you also go on a pilgrimage? Could you tell me if you : met my son anywhere ? His name is ; Jahangir." Mihir, clutching onto his precious bag, said, "Yes, Auntie, I met him on the road a few villages r away. He was on his way to home. t He should be here in a week."

The old woman leaned over and took her box away from Makarand. "Thank you, brother, you have saved me an unnecessary trip. Now, I will need some money to prepare for my son's welcome," she added and the two left the shop. Makarand could only stare at them open-mouthed.

1. What incident in the passage convinced Mihir that Makarand was indeed an honest man ?
(a) The incident where he scolded his helper boy for returning less change to the old woman who was a customer in his shop.
(b) The fact that Makarand refused to keep Mihir's money, in the event that it might destroy their friendship.
(c) The incident where Makarand told Mihir that he had kept his bag with him as he saw pigs digging at the very spot where the treasure was buried.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a) and (c)
Ans : (A)

2. What was Makarand's real intention for wanting to bury Mihir's bag of valuables ?
(A) He wanted Mihir to know where the money would be in case something happened to him while Mihir was away
(B) He did not feel safe keeping Mihir's bag of valuables with him
(C) He wanted to steal the money while Mihir was away
(D) He wanted the pigs to dig out the bag so he could steal it
(E) He wanted to be a part of a far more adventurous plan
Ans : (C)

3. Where did Makarand and Mihir bury the bag of coins ?
(A) In a secret place in Mihir's garden
(B) In the ground under Makarand's shop
(C) In the old woman's backyard
(D) In his shop
(E) Not indicated in the passage
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is true with regard to Mihir ?
(A) Mihir accused Makarand of stealing his valuables
(B) Mihir helped the old woman find her son
(C) Mihir left his life's savings with the old woman
(D) Mihir trusted Makarand with his valuables
(E) Mihir strongly believed that keeping others' money spoilt relationships
Ans : (D)

5. Why did Mihir want to keep his life's savings with Makarand ?
(a) Makarand had a locker in his shop.
(b) He trusted his friend Makarand more than anyone else.
(c) He was scared that if he buried his savings, the pigs would dig it out.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Either (b) or (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following statements is false according to passage ?
(A) The old woman's son went on the same pilgrimage as Mihir
(B) The old woman helped Mihir recover his savings from Makarand
(C) Makarand was a very shrewd shopkeeper
(D) Mihir had gone away on a pilgrimage
(E) Makarand had stolen Mihir's money
Ans : (A)

7. Why was Mihir sad after returning from the pilgrimage ?
(a) He lost all his valuables while returning from the pilgrimage.
(b) The valuables that he had buried safely had all disappeared. ]
(c) He had spent far too much of his savings on the pilgrimage.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. In the end, why did Makarand return Mihir's money ?
(a) He realised that he had done the wrong thing by pretending to be unaware of Mihir's misfortune.
(b) The old woman offered to give him two hundred gold coins if he returned Mihir's money back.
(c) He did not want to be accused of having stolen Mihir's money in front of the old woman.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q. 9–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word/s printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Clutching
(A) Releasing
(B) Fixing
(C) Holding
(D) Sticking
(E) Obtaining
Ans : (C)

10. Keen
(A) Eager
(B) Hurried
(C) Planning
(D) Fortunate
(E) Deserving
Ans : (A)

11. Choice
(A) Understanding
(B) Regard
(C) Value
(D) Pick
(E) Option
Ans : (E)

12. Whole
(A) Partial
(B) Some
(C) Entire
(D) Total
(E) Part
Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Complete
(A) Partial
(B) Start
(C) Incomplete
(D) End
(E) Finish
Ans : (B)

14. Sadly
(A) Quietly
(B) Dejectedly
(C) Happily
(D) Disturbingly
(E) Lonely
Ans : (C)

15. Forgot
(A) Found
(B) Memorised
(C) Lost
(D) Claimed
(E) Remembered
Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 16–20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

16. The more enlightened (A) / factory owners (B) / build homes for their (C) / workers in Britain in the 19th century. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

17. Most criminals (A) / realises that they may be caught, (B) / but nevertheless (C) / they are prepared to take the risk. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. Strictly speaking, (A) / spiders are not insects, (B) / although most people (C) / think them are. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

19. The actress is also (A) / widely respected in (B) / the music world (C) / and deserving so. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

20. The story was (A) / inspired by (B) / a chance meeting (C) / with an old Russian duke. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q. 21–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

21. He is held regard as the Chief's right-hand man.
(A) regards as
(B) to regard as
(C) regarded as
(D) being regarded for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

22. The inquiry has to bring to light some starting facts .
(A) bring light to
(B) brought to the lights
(C) brings to light
(D) brought to light
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

23. My friend went his way out to oblige me.
(A) out on his way
(B) out of his way
(C) so out of the way
(D) little way out
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

24. They are determined to stand up for their rights.
(A) be standing up
(B) for standing up
(C) stand up to
(D) stand on
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

25. Recently my expenses have gone run up considerably.
(A) run up
(B) to rise up
(C) had to run up
(D) got upwards
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 26–30) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

26. Rachana saw me…………for a bus, she stopped and …………me a lift.
(A) standing – took
(B) stopped – gave
(C) walking – sat
(D) testing – signalled
(E) waiting – offered
Ans : (E)

27. During winter, we can…………ourselves from the cold by wearing…………clothes.
(A) protect – warm
(B) establish – light
(C) save – good
(D) stop – thick
(E) escape – cotton
Ans : (A)

28. The school refused to…………acts of …………behaviour.
(A) overcome – spoilt
(B) tolerate – violent
(C) overlook – sudden
(D) appreciate – bravery
(E) comment – deserving
Ans : (B)

29. The actor was not …………by public criticism and paid no…………even to the poor reviews in the media.
(A) affected – attention
(B) troubled – mind
(C) effected – regard
(D) bothered – justification
(E) shocked – notices
Ans : (A)

30. The…………words of the teacher comforted the…………student.
(A) harsh – sorrowful
(B) encouraging – anxious
(C) reality – nervous
(D) wise – happy
(E) distracter – confused
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 31–35) In each question below, four words printed in bold are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e.' All Correct' as your answer.

31. An overly (A) obsessed (B) mother from Banaras wrote (C) in to tell me of her trajedy. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

32. The cat is sitting in front (A) of the television (B) with its tail, stretched (C) out strait. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

33. It would (A) be wrong to infer (B) that people who are overweight (C) are always sickly. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

34. The witness (A) stated (B) that he had not sean (C) the woman before. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (C)

35. Her giggles (A) were infecsious (B) and soon (C) we were all laughing. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions– (Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) The owner of the house was furious.
(b) After it had gone, a donkey who craved popularity climbed the roof and tried to perform the same tricks.
(c) His servants went up, drove the donkey down, and beat him black and blue.
(d) A monkey climbed the roof of a house and entertained the people who had gathered below to watch him at his antics.
(e) In the process, the donkey dislodged and broke several tiles.

36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) b
(E) a
Ans : (D)

38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (C)

39. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Emperor of China ...(41)... some peaches to the king of Tondmandalam with a note ...(42)...that the fruit gives long life to anyone who eats them. As the fruits were being shown to the ruler, Raffia, giving in to temptation, ...(43)... up one of the luscious peaches and ...(44)... into it. The king was ...(45) "You've bitten into a fruit ...(46)... for me !" he thundered. "For this you must die !" As Raffia was being taken away by the royal guards he sighed dramatically and exclaimed: "What a deceitful man the Emperor of China is. He ...(47)... the fruit gives long life. I took just one bite and I am about to die. Oh, what fate ...(48)... the one who eats the entire fruit !" The king was ...(49)... amused by Raffia's wit. He not only ...(50)... him but gave him a dozen of the peaches he had risked his life for .

41. (A) parcel
(B) grown
(C) bought
(D) sent
(E) give
Ans : (D)

42. (A) stating
(B) attach
(C) stuck
(D) telling
(E) meaning
Ans : (A)

43. (A) reached
(B) picked
(C) take
(D) secured
(E) stole
Ans : (B)

44. (A) touched
(B) smell
(C) opened
(D) bit
(E) look
Ans : (D)

45. (A) enraged
(B) harsh
(C) teasing
(D) eager
(E) sober
Ans : (A)

46. (A) parcel
(B) made
(C) designed
(D) send
(E) meant
Ans : (E)

47. (A) promises
(B) directed
(C) said
(D) told
(E) meant
Ans : (A)

48. (A) has
(B) holds
(C) awaits
(D) for
(E) stores
Ans : (C)

49. (A) also
(B) farther
(C) being
(D) little
(E) greatly
Ans : (E)

50. (A) rejected
(B) pardoned
(C) praise
(D) left
(E) forgive
Ans : (B)

Gurgaon Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011 : Solved Paper

2011-11-21T18:18:00.000-08:00

Gurgaon Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 5-6-2011)
General English : Solved Paper

Directions–(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once there was an elderly widow, Chen Ma, who lived with her only son inside a forest in the Shanxi Province. Her son was one of the tiger hunters licensed by the local magistrate. His share of the profits from the sale of tiger skins, meat and bones was sufficient to keep the small mud hut well provisioned for himself and his old mother. All was well until a particularly bitter winter. During a snowstorm, Chen Ma's son was separated from his fellow hunters and became food for a hungry tigress.

After her initial shock and grief subsided, Chen Ma took stock of her own utterly desperate situation. She went and implored the magistrate to provide her with compensation for the loss of her son, who was her only source of support. The magistrate decreed that henceforth, she would have a small share of profits from the kill of each tiger by the hunters. Needless to say, his decision was not taken well by the hunters, who had plenty of mouths of their own to feed. So, when the hunters succeeded in killing the tigress that ate Chen Ma's son, they decided not to give her a share of the profits. Instead, they brought her the tigress' newborn cub. He was a small quivery ball of golden fur with wobbly legs and toothless gums. Instantly, Chen Ma's heart went out to this helpless creature.

After the hunters left, the tiger cub wobbled to where Chen Ma sat and lay at her feet. She bent down to rub his ears and he licked her shoes. The elderly widow looked at the tiger baby and sighed. "They told me to butcher you, to salt and smoke your flesh for my meat supply. Your skin would make warm boots for my feet; your bones are good for making balm to ease the pain in my joints. But oh, how can I bear to kill you ?" And so, Chen Ma untied the rope from the little tiger's neck and fed him a paste of cooked roots with her fingers. Her son had a good supply of grains and roots in the attached shed. When the store of the firewood was running low, Chen Ma slept curling against the baby tiger, whose soft fur was cozy and warm.

Once ever so often, women from nearby villages would bring sewing for Chen Ma to do. She was very handy with a needle. They paid her for her labour with small sacks of grain. At first they did not find the little tiger's presence alarming; he was no bigger than a piglet. However, when spring came, he had grown into the size of a calf, showing a full set of teeth and claws. The women told their hunter husbands and the men came to kill the young tiger.

Chen Ma armed herself with her son's hunting spear arid threatened to gut anyone who dared to harm her beloved pet. "I've lost both husband and son. This tiger is the only companion I have now. I shall go to the magistrate and request to adopt him as my son."

The hunters thought the old woman had become mad and jeered at her. But since she was so determined, they dared not kill her tiger without the magistrate's permission. So they followed Chen Ma and her tiger all the way to the official's judgement hall.

"Venerable Mother," said the magistrate. "Your request is most unusual. Are you not afraid that someday the tiger might revert to his wild nature and devour you ?"

"Honourable sir ," replied the old widow with tears in her eyes. "What is there to fear ? I have lived too long. The only worry I have now is being left utterly alone. Please let me adopt this young tiger, for he has become like a son in my affections."

The kind magistrate did not have the heart to refuse such an ancient woman's pleading. So he had his assistant draw up a document for the tiger's adoption. In order to protect the tiger from the hunters' arrows and spears, the magistrate ordered a large copper pendent made to hang around the beast's neck. The words 'Fu Chee' were engraved on the pendent meaning Tiger Son. To show her deep gratitude, Chen Ma knelt down in front of the magistrate. Then she led Fu Chee back to their home in the forest.

By next winter, Fu Chee had grown into his maximum size. Chen Ma's hut was in danger of collapsing whenever the tiger became playful. Reluctantly, she allowed Fu Chee to make his home inside a cave nearby.

However, the affectionate tiger came back to visit his adopted mother often. Also, he still liked to lick her shoes and to have his ears rubbed. Chen Ma's needs were being cared for just as if her natural son was still alive! After Chen Ma died at the ripe old age past one hundred, the hunters noticed Fu Chee guarded her tomb nightly. They left him undisturbed as he had never attacked any humans or domestic animals. This went on for a number of years and then one day the tiger was seen no more.

Out of deep respect and admiration for the filial tiger son, the hunters erected a small stone monument at Chen Ma's tomb with Fu Chee's story engraved on it. Henceforth, Fu Chee became a household legend in that part of Shanxi Province.

1. Why did Chen Ma not kill the tiger cub ?
(A) She found the cub helpless
(B) The cub was a gift from the hunters and she cherished it
(C) The magistrate had asked her not to kill the cub
(D) The cub immediately reminded her of her son
(E) She was too afraid of the cub to go near him
Ans : (A)

2. Why was a stone monument of Fu Chee erected at Chen Ma's tomb ?
(A) It was because Chen Ma had loved only Fu Chee her entire life and no one else
(B) It was out of fear of Fu Chee who was adopted by Ch~n Ma
(C) It was so that Fu Chee would not attack any humans or animals after Chen Ma's death
(D) It was out of reverence for Fu Chee who came to Chen Ma's tomb regularly after her death
(E) Not mentioned in the passage
Ans : (D)

3. How did Chen Ma's son die ?
(A) He had died while fighting for his province
(B) He was eaten by a tigress
(C) He was sentenced to death by the magistrate
(D) He was killed by the hunters
(E) He died of old age
Ans : (B)

4. Why did the hunters come to kill the tiger at Chen Ma's house ?
(A) The tiger had attacked the hunter's wives when they had visited Chen Ma' s house
(B) The tiger had displayed signs of aggression when the hunters had visited Chen Ma's
house
(C) The tiger had grown big and the hunters' wives were afraid of him
(D) There Were no other tigers left in the province to kill
(E) They wanted to seek revenge from Chen Ma because she had been getting free food from them
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to Chen Ma from the story ?
(a) She was loving
(b) She was crazy.
(c) She was brave.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (a) and (c)
(C) All. (a), (b) and (c)
(D) Only (c)
(E) Only (b) and (c)
Ans : (B)

6. Why did the hunters give Chen Ma a tiger cub ?
(A) So that the magistrate would never make such unreasonable demands from the hunters in the future
(B) So that she could have a companion now that her son was dead
(C) So that she could kill him and use his flesh and bones
(D) So that she could take back her request to the magistrate
(E) So that she could get revenge for her son's death
Ans : (E)

7. Why did Chen Ma go to the magistrate the second time ?
(A) She wanted to adopt the tiger and make him her son
(B) She wanted the magistrate to name him
(C) She wanted the magistrate to punish all the hunters of the province
(D) She wanted the magistrate to build a cave for the tiger
(E) She wanted the magistrate to compensate her for the death of her son
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following can be said about Fu Chee ?
(a) He was loyal.
(b) He was affectionate.
(c) He hunted down humans.
(A) Only (b)
(B) Only (c)
(C) Only (a)
(D) Only (a) and{b)
(E) Only (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage/story ?
(A) Chen Ma and The Hunters
(B) The Kind Magistrate
(C) The Hunters of Shanxi
(D) The Self-Sacrificing Mother
(E) Fu Chee-The Loyal Tiger
Ans : (E)

10. Why did Chen Ma not allow the hunters to kill the tiger ?
(A) She believed that the tiger guarded her well
(B) She wanted to use the tiger's flesh for her own consumption
(C) She wanted to become popular as the only woman to have adopted a tiger
(D) She wanted the tiger to guard her tomb after her death
(E) She loved the tiger
Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. JEERED
(A) Boasted
(B) Feared
(C) Mocked
(D) Encouraged
(E) Called
Ans : (C)

12. ALARMING
(A) Awakening
(B) Soothing
(C) Alerting
(D) Placating
(E) Frightening
Ans : (E)

13. GUT
(A) Kill
(B) Brave
(C) Reward
(D) Praise
(E) List
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. PROTECT
(A) Discard
(B) Endanger
(C) Uncover
(D) Shield
(E) Save
Ans : (E)

15. UNTIED
(A) Closed
(B) Reacted
(C) Fastened
(D) Shut
(E) Removed
Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 16–20) Which of the words (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) given below each sentence should fill the blank in the sentence to make it grammatically and meaningfully correct ?

16. Naresh owed me a significant of …………..money.
(A) sums
(B) cash
(C) token
(D) load
(E) amount
Ans : (E)

17. Kirti would not have passed the exams…………..her brother not helped her .
(A) since
(B) whether
(C) had
(D) since
(E) if
Ans : (B)

18. This story…………..us how the noble heroes of the past adhered to the principle of truth and honesty .
(A) understands
(B) narrates
(C) says
(D) tells
(E) depicts
Ans : (D)

19. The weeping mother tried to make her son do as she wished, I but he was………….. (A) ignored
(B) refused
(C) adamant
(D) agreeable
(E) removed
Ans : (C)

20. A foolish man will insult his superiors with harsh words whereas a wise man will maintain…………..
(A) noise
(B) silence
(C) composed
(D) quite
(E) relation
Ans : (B)

Directions– (Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., All correct' as your answer.

21. Everyone (A) in office agrees (B) that your (C) very intelligent. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (C)

22. Crying (A) is journally (B) considered (C) to be a negative (D) emotion. All correct. (E)
Ans : (B)

23. Soon enogh (A) Amogh returned (B) home safe (C) and unscathed. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The meating (A) went on smoothly (B) without any glitch (C) and every. body congratulated (D) the speaker. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

25. Gaurang wowed (A) to never (B) smoke a cigarette ever again (C) in his entire (D) life. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) That very night those Sages had a great ceremony for the purpose of doing good to the wife of the King, but the King did not know that.
(b) The King saw the jar of water on the altar and without stopping to think he went quickly towards it and drank up all the water.
(c) The King came forward at once and truthfully owned that he, being very thirsty, had drunk the water.
(d) It happened once that King Ashoka, who had been observing a great fast and was suffering from hunger and thirst, entered the hermitage of some great Sages quite late in the night.
(e) Soon after the Sages awoke and found that there was no water in the jar, and they began to ask who would have done such a thing as take the water they had prepared for the King's wife from off the altar.
(f) The Sages had a large jar of water which they had blessed and made holy to cure the King's wife, and they put the jar on the altar and then went to sleep, for they were very tired.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (f)
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. We were not exactly (A) / in the beach, but were (B) / close enough to taste (C) / the salt in the air. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. Tina sat on her bed (A) / and read a book till (B) / it was time for her to (C) / go to sleep. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. It was lately morning (A) / when the soldiers (B) / came knocking (C) / on the door. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. Puneet looked up (A) / for see customers crowding into (B) / his shop to get a free sample (C) / of his new delicacy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. Jimmy was made to (A) / sit in an office which (B) / was empty except (C) / than two chairs and one table. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. The dog leapt (A) / forward, breaking (B) / free from (C) / its owner's grasp. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

37. She threw herself (A) / into her mother's arms (B) / and weep (C) / with sorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Krupa had heard (A) / Mahesh yelling (B) / and thought it best (C) / to left him alone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. Robert looked at (A) / his friend who, according to (B) / his mother, was (C) / a very mischievous boy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. Although Gopi could not see (A) / who was shootirig at him, (B) / he started crawling away (C) / drag his bag behind him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day, overnight, the world turned violet. Just ...(41)... everything turned violet from the sky and ocean and mountains to the trees and animals and people and from the tallest skyscrapers to the tiniest ant. People sat around looking at one another wondering if they were dreaming. But things stayed violet, all except for a single Blue Jay who hadn't changed colour and stayed the brightest blue. Being the only thing in the world that wasn't violet, he was ...(42)... and put in a cage. People were shocked as whole families Were violet as were teachers, movie stars, doctors, nurses, gas station attendants, everybody. The smartest scientists in the world gathered to ...(43)... it out. They did studies and tests and analyzed and evaluated and debated and wrote article after article, but couldn't explain it. The colour of the Blue Jay became a big issue because he had such a little bit of blue and the world had such a whole lot of violet. People argued about the importance of that. Some said the Blue Jay must be a very special bird or may be not a bird at all because he alone had kept his true colour. Others said this was silly, that the Blue Jay ate bird seed and drank water and fluffed his feathers and that other ...(44)... his special colour he was still just a bird. It was exactly one year to the day after the world had turned violet th'at people awoke to find the world had turned yellow. All except the Blue Jay. Now the Blue Jay was ...(45)... important than ever because he alone had stayed the colour blue and people argued about what that meant. They lined up for miles just to take a look at him.

For the next two years, exactly on the day the world had turned violet and then yellow, It turned new colours : first orange and then pink. Still the Blue Jay stayed blue, ...(46). ..every greater disagreement -until in the fifth year the whole world turned blue. The first thing people asked was what about the Blue Jay. ...(47)... he stayed blue ? Yes, he was still the same colour. No ...(48). ..were there two colours in the world, but just one -the colour blue. And because the Blue Jay was a colour like everybody and everything else somebody let him out of his cage and he flew off looking happy to be free. The very next morning the world ...(49) ...its rainbow of colours as if nothing had ever ...(50) At first this was a novelty but soon people forgot the world had once been all violet, then turned yellow, then orange, then pink and then blue.

41. (A) with
(B) all
(C) about
(D) almost
(E) from
Ans : (D)

42. (A) killed
(B) capture
(C) pushed
(D) caught
(E) lift
Ans : (D)

43. (A) figure
(B) spread
(C) find
(D) explain
(E) measure
Ans : (B)

44. (A) besides
(B) then
(C) but
(D) feature
(E) than
Ans : (E)

45. (A) more
(B) many
(C) least
(D) supreme
(E) very
Ans : (A)

46. (A) making
(B) seeing
(C) growing
(D) becoming
(E) causing
Ans : (E)

47. (A) Does
(B) Did
(C) Was
(D) Had
(E) Is
Ans : (D)

48. (A) time
(B) longer
(C) on
(D) doubt
(E) much
Ans : (B)

49. (A) get
(B) granted
(C) regained
(D) receive
(E) shed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) created
(B) happened
(C) become
(D) changes
(E) occur
Ans : (B)

Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court Clerical Cadre Service Exam., 2011

2011-11-16T18:04:00.000-08:00

Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court
Clerical Cadre Service Exam., 2011
(Held on 28-8-2011)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Govind National Park
(b) Sonanadi Wild Life Sanctuary
(c) Tiger fall
(d) Gorakhnath Ki Dhuni
List-II
1. Dehradun
2. Champawat
3. Pauri Garhwal
4. Uttarkashi
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

2. Which National Highway does not pass through Distt. Udham Singh Nagar ?
(A) NH-125
(B) NH-74
(C) NH-87
(D) NH-123
Ans : (B)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Kotgarhi Devi
(b) Pataal Rudreshwar
(c) Raichand Devta
(d) Dunagiri
List-II
1. Pithoragarh
2. Champawat
3. Bageshwar
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

4. ‘Indian Institute of Management’ IIM in Uttarakhand is situated—
(A) Srinagar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Kashipur (U.S. Nagar)
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I and II—
List-I (Hill)
(a) Nanda Devi
(b) Panchachuli
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Trishul
List-II (Place)
1. Uttarkashi
2. Chamoli
3. Pithoragarh
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

6. Where is Industrial Taxological Research Centre situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Roorkee
(C) Nainital
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (A)

7. An electric bulb has a filament made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
Ans : (D)

8. The Nainital Lake was discovered by (in 1841)—
(A) Shankaracharya
(B) Pradhumna Shah
(C) P. Bairan
(D) Frank Smith
Ans : (A)

9. Stainless steel contains—
(A) Chromium, Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(B) Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(C) Chromium, Iron and Carbon
(D) Iron and Carbon only
Ans : (A)

10. Where is the BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) U. S. Nagar
(D) Pauri
Ans : (B)

11. Where is National Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (C)

12. Mussoorie wild life sanctuary is established in—
(A) 1983
(B) 1993
(C) 1971
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

13. Kedarnath wild life sanctuary is situated at—
(A) Almora
(B) Nainital
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (D)

14. Where is Udaishankar Dance Academy situated ?
(A) Almora
(B) Dehradun
(C) Srinagar
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (A)

15. Most of the weather phenomenon takes place in the—
(A) Photosphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (D)

16. Chemically, dry ice is—
(A) Solid Carbondioxide
(B) Solid Sulphurdioxide
(C) Ice formed from distilled water
(D) Ice kept at Sub-zero temperature
Ans : (A)

17. Who is the first Chairman of Public Service Commission of Uttarakhand ?
(A) N.P. Nawani
(B) K. Arya
(C) Ajay Vikram Singh
(D) Ashok Kant Saran
Ans : (A)

18. Where is the Tiffin top situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mumbai
(D) Roorkee
Ans : (B)

19. The planet nearest to sun is—
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Mercury
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

20. Excessive Consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to—
(A) Lungs
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
Ans : (B)

21. How many colour are there in white light ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

22. Corbett National Park aims mainly on protection of which animal ?
(A) Elephant
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Panther
(D) Tiger
Ans : (D)

23. How many districts touch the international boundary in Uttarakhand ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

24. Which is the oldest Veda ?
(A) Yajurveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Samveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)

25. Average blood-pressure of human is—
(A) 60/100
(B) 20/80
(C) 60/140
(D) 120/80
Ans : (D)

26. The number of chromosomes in human beings is—
(A) 36
(B) 46
(C) 56
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

27. The branch of Science that deals with tumors is known as—
(A) Serology
(B) Oncology
(C) Chromology
(D) Urology
Ans : (B)

28. What line connects the point on a map that receive equal amount of rainfall ?
(A) Isobar
(B) Isohel
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isohyet
Ans : (D)

29. Which Indian born physicist invented the ‘Optical Fibre’ ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Satyendra Nath Bose
(C) Homi J. Bhabha
(D) Narinder Singh Kapany
Ans : (D)

30. ‘Ace’, ‘Double fault’, ‘Smash’, ‘Second Service’ and‘Gamepoint’ terms are related with which sport ?
(A) Tennis
(B) Squash
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

31. Who authored ancient Sanskrit plays ‘Malti Madhava’, ‘Mahavir-Charita’ and Uttar Ramcharita ?
(A) Kalidas
(B) Bhavabhuti
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Vishakhadatta
Ans : (B)

32. Which Indian lady writer authored Onasis award winning play ‘Harvest’, highlighting the controversial issue of Organ trading in poverty stricken areas ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Manjula Padmanabhan
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans : (C)

33. Who was the first person to calculate the height of the Mount Everest ?
(A) Andrew Waugh
(B) George Everest
(C) Nain Singh Rawat
(D) Radhanath Sikdar
Ans : (D)

34. The transfer of Capital of British Indian from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

35. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing ?
(A) Bal Shree Scheme
(B) Bal Bodh
(C) Bal Sadan
(D) Bal Shiksha
Ans : (A)

36. The right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all chidren in the age-group of 6 to 14 years. This right is inserted to which article of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-21
(B) Article-24
(C) Article-19
(D) Article-14
Ans : (A)

37. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is the Research and developing wing of which Ministry under Government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Home affairs
(B) Ministry of defence
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Ministry of Environment
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Central Potato Research Institute — Shimla
(B) Archaelogical Survey of India — Kolkata
(C) Indian Institute of Petroleum — Dehradun
(D) National Dairy Research Institute — Panipat
Ans : (D)

39. Laprosy is caused by—
(A) Pasteurella pestis
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Clostridium
(D) Vibrio
Ans : (A)

40. Bacteria were first discovered by—
(A) Robert Koch
(B) L. Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) A. Von Leuwenhoek
Ans : (D)

41. Which is known as evening star ?
(A) Cirrus
(B) Saturn
(C) Uranus
(D) Venus
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Horse Latitude’ related to—
(A) Thermal Belt
(B) Sea Route
(C) Pressure Belt
(D) Eco Belt
Ans : (B)

43. Which one of the following layers have maximum density ?
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (B)

44. The name of the founder of the Red Cross is—
(A) Henry Dunant
(B) Baden Powell
(C) Frederick Passey
(D) U-Thant
Ans : (B)

45. The city of Rome is situated on the bank of river—
(A) Vistula
(B) Avon
(C) Rhine
(D) Tiber
Ans : (D)

46. Vinegar is produced from—
(A) Ethanoic Acid
(B) Valeric Acid
(C) Methanoic Acid
(D) Butanoic Acid
Ans : (C)

47. The famous temple of ‘Neelkhanth Mahadev’ is situated in which district ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) Pauri Garhwal
(D) Rudraprayag
Ans : (B)

48. Who is known as ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’ ?
(A) Late Indramani Badoni
(B) Sridev Suman
(C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Ans : (A)

49. Who is named as ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ in the history of Garhwal ?
(A) Teelu Rauteli
(B) Maharani Gularia
(C) Jiarani
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. Who is the first Indian whose name is entered in ‘Guinese Book of World Records’ on making world record in shorthand ?
(A) Shri Kishan Chandra Joshi
(B) Dr. Gopal Das Bisht
(C) Shri Badri Dutt Pandey
(D) Dr. Harshavanti Bisht
Ans : (B)

51. When was the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi established ?
(A) 14 November, 1951
(B) 14 November, 1965
(C) 9 November, 2000
(D) 9 November, 1991
Ans : (B)

52. The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi river is—
(A) Devprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Nandprayag
(D) Karnaprayag
Ans : (A)

53. L.P.G. mainly contains—
(A) Methane
(B) Methane and Ethane
(C) Hydrogen, Methane and Ethane
(D) Butane and Propane
Ans : (D)

54. ‘Fire Temple’ is the worship place of which religion ?
(A) Christianity
(B) Yahudi
(C) Muslim
(D) Parsi
Ans : (B)

55. Where in 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose announced the temporary Government for the freedom of India ?
(A) Colombo
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Rangoon
Ans : (C)

56. Which one is not one of the four Vedas ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Atharvaveda
(D) Ayurveda
Ans : (D)

57. Name of Shivaji’s mother—
(A) Ahilya Bai
(B) Jodhabai
(C) Jeeja Bai
(D) Panna Bai
Ans : (C)

58. Which city is called ‘City of Lakes’ ?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Jammu
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

59. Which out of the following rivers terminates in the Arabian Sea ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Indus
(C) Yamuna
(D) Gomti
Ans : (B)

60. Who wrote ‘Geetanjali’ ?
(A) Sharat Chandra
(B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
Ans : (C)

61. ‘Uber Cup’ is related to which game ?
(A) Baseball
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Basket Ball
Ans : (B)

62. Veer Chandra Singh Garhwali is related to—
(A) Kakori-Case
(B) Meerut-Armed Revolt
(C) Chauri-Chaura Case
(D) Peshwar Military Revolt
Ans : (D)

63. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?
(A) ADR
(B) GDR
(C) SDR
(D) Both ADR and SDR
Ans : (C)

64. In India, the interest rate on saving accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by—
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

65. What does S and P 500 relate to ?
(A) Super Computer
(B) A new technique in e-business
(C) A new technique in bridge building
(D) A index of stock of large companies
Ans : (D)

66. Gilt-edged market means—
(A) Bullion market
(B) Market of Government Securities
(C) Markets of Guns
(D) Market of Pure metals
Ans : (B)

67. Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Kandla
(C) Mumbai
(D) Visakhapatnam
Ans : (C)

68. ‘Chapchar Kut’ festival is celebrated in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Mizoram
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (C)

69. First Indian actress to be awarded ‘Padamshri’—
(A) Smita Patil
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Meena Kumari
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (B)

70. ‘Charak Sanhita’ is related to which of the following ?
(A) Art
(B) Law
(C) Adminstration of State
(D) Medicine
Ans : (D)

71. During which five year plan was the Emergency clamped, new election took place and Janta Party was elected ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Ans : (C)

72. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within—
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
Ans : (C)

73. Who was the speaker of the first Lok Sabha ?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar
Ans : (B)

74. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Either House of Parliament
(C) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(D) Rajya Sabha Alone
Ans : (D)

75. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the—
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

77. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the scheduled tribes in Lok Sabha is—
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

78. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
(A) Blue light
(B) Green light
(C) Red light
(D) Yellow light
Ans : (A)

79. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an—
(A) Amphibian
(B) Bony fish
(C) Shark
(D) Mammal
Ans : (D)

80. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?
(A) Leaf
(B) Petal
(C) Sepal
(D) Stigma
Ans : (D)

81. The full name of EONR is—
(A) East Organisation for North Region
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) English Organisation for Nuclear Research
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

82. In the context of alternative sources of energy, Ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from—
(A) Potato
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Ans : (C)

83. In the following matching which one of them does not match ?
(A) Baki Etihas—Badal Sarkar
(B) Sita Swayamber—Vishnu Das Bhave
(C) Yayati—Girish Karnad
(D) Gidha—Jabar Patel
Ans : (D)

84. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) Extent of executive power of State
(D) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans : (B)

85. Reserve Bank of India was Established in—
(A) 1929
(B) 1942
(C) 1935
(D) 1947
Ans : (C)

86. Hereditary information in animals and plants is stored in—
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Ribosomes
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

87. Point out the wrong match—
(A) Plague — Rat
(B) Rabies — Dog
(C) Polio — Monkey
(D) Tapeworm — Pig
Ans : (C)

88. Diabetes is caused due to lack of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Insulin
(C) Calcium
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)

89. The satellite launching center in India is located at—
(A) Thumba
(B) Bangalore
(C) Sri Harikota
(D) Trombay
Ans : (C)

90. The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in—
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

91. Central Building Reserach Institute is located at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Roorkee
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

92. Optical fiber are used in—
(A) CAT Scans
(B) X-ray photos
(C) Ultrasonic Scans
(D) Endoscopy
Ans : (A)

93. The concept of carbon credit is originated from which one of the following ?
(A) Earth Summit, Rio-de Janerio
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) G-8, Summit Helligendamm
Ans : (B)

94. Who is known as ‘Missile Man of India’ ?
(A) Arjun Singh
(B) Dr. C. V. Raman
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) H.J. Bhabha
Ans : (C)

95. The largest gland of body is—
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Adrenal
Ans : (A)

96. Cryogenic Engine is used in—
(A) Sub-marine
(B) Glider
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)

97. On which of the following rivers Hirakund Dam is built ?
(A) Godawari
(B) Ganga
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
Ans : (D)

98. Kaziranga Sanctuary is for the protection of—
(A) Birds
(B) Tiger
(C) Rhinoceros
(D) Elephant
Ans : (C)

99. Pt. Ravishankar is an exponent of—
(A) Sitar
(B) Sarod
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (A)

100. The Eiffel Tower is situated at—
(A) London
(B) Berlin
(C) Paris
(D) Washington
Ans : (C)

101. The second largest delta is on the river of—
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godawari
Ans : (B)

102. Volume of blood in normal body is—
(A) 3-4 litre
(B) 10-12 litre
(C) 8-10 litre
(D) 5-6 litre
Ans : (D)

103. ‘Lord Buddha’ was born at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Lumbini
(C) Kapilvastu
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (B)

104. Who is known as ‘Father of Computer’ ?
(A) Blaze Pascal
(B) Charles Bavage
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (B)

105. Who is known as ‘Lady with the lamp’ ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Jone of Arc
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Florence Nightingale
Ans : (D)

106. ‘Garba Dance’ is associated with which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

107. ‘Alfred Noble’ is known for—
(A) Microphone
(B) Type-writer
(C) Dynamite
(D) Gramophone
Ans : (C)

108. ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on which date ?
(A) 5th June
(B) 2nd October
(C) 10th November
(D) 19th November
Ans : (A)

109. Jim Corebett National Park was established in the year—
(A) 1936
(B) 1947
(C) 1982
(D) 1957
Ans : (A)

110. ‘Project Tiger’ was started in the year—
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1982
(D) 1990
Ans : (B)

111. Normal blood sugar level in human is—
(A) 80-100 mg/100 ml of blood
(B) 50-80 mg/100 ml of blood
(C) 110-170 mg/100 ml of blood
(D) 115-140 mg/100 ml of blood
Ans : (A)

112. The United Nations Organisation came into existence in—
(A) 1946
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
Ans : (B)

113. The headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in—
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) New York
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)

114. ‘Dar-es-Salaam’ is capital of—
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Japan
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)

115. ‘Kyat’ is the currency of—
(A) Myanmar
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)

116. Who is called the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(A) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Nauroji
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)

117. Mark the incorrect pair—
(A) Frontier Gandhi—Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Deshbandhu—Chitranjan Dass
(C) Deenbandhu—C.F. Andrews
(D) Lok Nayak—Jai Prakash
Ans : (A)

118. Article-370 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Punjab
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

119. The minimum age required for an Indian citizen to become a member of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

120. What is the principle by which is cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation only
(D) Both conduction and radiation
Ans : (D)

121. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technology ?
(A) EDGE
(B) DSI
(C) LTE
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

122. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?
(A) Radio wave
(B) Microwave
(C) IR wave
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

123. Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
(A) Phosphorous Trichloride
(B) Mercuric Oxide
(C) Graphite
(D) Nitroglycerine
Ans : (D)

124. Consider the following—
1. Camphor
2. Chicory
3. Vanilla
Which of the above is/are plant product(s)?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

125. In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a—
(A) Bat
(B) Kite
(C) Stork
(D) Vulture
Ans : (A)

126. The main chemical substance present in the bones and teeth of animal is—
(A) Sodium Chloride
(B) Sugar
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Sulphate
Ans : (C)

127. What is the colour of ‘Black Box’ of an aeroplane ?
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Violet
(D) Orange
Ans : (D)

128. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease’ is found in—
(A) Cattles and sheep
(B) Cattles and pigs
(C) Sheep and goats
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

129. In Computer terminology CD means—
(A) Compact disc
(B) Compressed disc
(C) Computerised data
(D) Compressed data
Ans : (A)

130. ‘Alzeheimer Disease’ effects which organ of the body ?
(A) Ear
(B) Brain
(C) Eye
(D) Abdomen
Ans : (B)

131. Main Constituent of honey is—
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Maltose
(D) Fructose
Ans : (D)

132. Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Guava
(C) Mango
(D) Orange
Ans : (B)

133. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven. The potato heat up the paper plate does not. This is because—
(A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(B) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contains water
(C) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

134. ‘Swaraj is my Birth-Right’ who gave this slogan ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (B)

135. In India ‘Silicon Valley’ is situated in—
(A) Madras (Chennai)
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore (Bengaluru)
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

136. ‘Chilli Saltpetre’ is associated with—
(A) Sodium Nitrate
(B) Cupric Chloride
(C) Potassium Nitrate
(D) Sodium Chloride
Ans : (A)

137. The drug ‘Quinine’ is obtained from which plant ?
(A) Cannabis Plant
(B) Cinchona Plant
(C) Tulsi Plant
(D) Sunflower plant
Ans : (B)

138. Who invented ‘Television’ ?
(A) Edison
(B) Galelio
(C) Baired
(D) Franklin
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the following instrument is used to measure intensity of sun-rays ?
(A) Astrometer
(B) Crescograph
(C) Acteometer
(D) Barometer
Ans : (A)

140. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Nandadevi
(B) Chaukhambha
(C) Kamet
(D) Mount Everest
Ans : (A)

Associate Banks of SBI PO Exam, 2011 : General Awareness, Marketing and Computers Solved Paper

2011-11-15T19:51:00.000-08:00

Associate Banks of SBI Probationary Officers Exam., 2011
(Held on 7-8-2011)
General Awareness, Marketing and Computers

1. A major Public Sector Bank raised interest rates on loans by 25 basis points–was news in some major financial newspapers recently. This means bank has raised interest by 25 basis points of–
(A) Savings Bank Interest Rate
(B) Base Lending Rate
(C) Repo Rates
(D) Present Rates on Deposits
(E) Discounted Rates of Interest
Ans : (B)

2. The Finance Minister of India in one of his press conferences said that inflationary pressure is likely to continue following recent increase in rates of some commodities in international markets. Which of the following commodities was he referring to as it gets frequent increase at international levels and disturbs our Home Economy substantially ?
(A) Gold and Silver
(B) Petroleum products
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Sugar
(E) Jute and Jute products
Ans : (B)

3. Immediately prior to change in the measure of Food Inflation, which of the following indexes was being used for measuring it?
(A) Wholesale Price Index
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Interest Rates offered by banks on deposits
(D) Sensex and Nifty
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. What is the full form of 'FINO' a term we see frequently in financial newspapers ?
(A) Financial Investment Network and Operations
(B) Farmer's Investment in National Organisation
(C) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
(D) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is / are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers / poor in India ?
1. Fertilizer
2. Kerosene
3. LPG
(A) Only1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

6. 'Bhagyam Oilfields' which were recently in news are located in which of the following states in India ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Assam
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (A)

7. The Finance Minister of India recently decided to review the position of 'Bad Debts' in priority sector. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) owing to which PM took this decision ?
1. Bad Debt in agriculture is still rising substantially every year despite special treatment to it.
2. Bad Debt in other areas of priority sector is almost nil now,
3. Govt. is planning to disburse another installment of Rs. 1,60,000 crore which will bring 'Bad Debts' almost at 'Nil level' and no special treatment will be needed in next fiscal year.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

8. Which amongst the following countries is not a member of the TAPI pipe line project, which was in news recently ?
(A) India
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Portugal
(D) Pakistan
(E) Turkmenistan
Ans : (C)

9. An agreement on Arms Reduction popularly known as 'START' is one of the major issues in the way of smooth relations between which of the following two countries ?
(A) India–Pakistan
(B) India–China
(C) China–Japan
(D) USA–Russia
(E) Russia–Iran
Ans : (D)

10. The International WWW Conference-2011 was organized in which of the following places in March 2011 ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Vienna
(D) Manila
(E) Hyderabad
Ans : (E)

11. Which of the following international agencies/ organizations had initiated an "International Convention for the 'Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance' , which came into effect recently ?
(A) World Health Organisation (WHO)
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) International Maritime Organisation
(D) International Atomic Energy Agency
(E) United Nations organization
Ans : (E)

12. 'BRIC' which was the Organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia, India and China has now become 'BRICS'. Which is the fifth nation included in it ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Sp Lanka
(C) Singapore
(D) Spain
(E) South Africa
Ans : (E)

13. The process of acquisition of agricultural land and its compensation to farmers recently came up as a major issue in which of the following states ? (It also created law and order problem in the State)
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Punjab
Ans : (C)

14. What does the letter 'L' denote in term 'LAF' as referred every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the RBI ?
(A) Liquidity
(B) Liability
(C) Leveraged
(D) Longitudinal
(E) Linear
Ans : (A)

15. BP Pic which was in news recently is a major international company in field of–
(A) Heavy Machinery
(B) Oil exploration and processing
(C) Atomic Energy
(D) Information Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has been appointed as the new coach of the Indian Cricket team for a period of two years ?
(A) Stuart Law
(B) Allan Border
(C) Gary Kirsten
(D) Duncan Fletcher
(E) Allan Donald
Ans : (D)

17. Why was Kanishtha Dhankhars name in news recently ?
(A) She was crowned Femina Miss India-2011
(B) She was adjudged Best Actress-2010 by Film Fare
(C) She is the new Capital of India's woman cricket team
(D) She is the new Dy. Minister Textile in place of Dayanidhi Maran
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. K. Balachander, who was awarded prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award-2010, is basically a/an–
(A) Actor
(B) Director
(C) Photographer
(D) Music Director
(E) Choreographer
Ans : (D)

19. Banks and other financial institutions in India are required to maintain a certain amount of liquid assets like cash, precious metals and other short term securities as a reserve all the time. In Banking World this is known as–
(A) CRR
(B) Fixed Asset
(C) SLR
(D) PLR
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following Space agencies recently launched three satellites and placed them into Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit successfully?
(A) NASA
(B) ROSCOSMOS
(C) cnsa
(D) ISRO
(E) JAXA
Ans : (D)

21. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India recently, "Bamboo is a liberated item now". What does it really mean ?
1. Bamboo, henceforth will be treated as a minor forest produce only.
2. Now villagers are free to sell bamboo in their community forest areas.
3. Gramsabha is given right to issue transport passes to legally transport the produce.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. Union Cabinet recently passed a Rs. 7000 crore project to clean-up which of the following rivers in India?
(A) Narmada
(B) Ravi
(C) Ganga
(D) Chambal
(E) Krishna
Ans : (C)

23. As per estimates of the Planning Commission of India the target growth rate of 12th Five Year Plan is set to–
(A) 7 to 8%
(B) 8.0% to 8.5%
(C) 9% to 9.5%
(D) 10 to 10.5%
(E) 11%
Ans : (E)

24. Goodluck Jonathan was recently reelected the President of–
(A) South Africa
(B) Nigeria
(C) Kosovo
(D) Haiti
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following schemes is not launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Govt. of India ?
(A) National Old Age Pension Scheme
(B) National Maternity Benefit Scheme
(C) National Family Benefit Scheme
(D) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(E) All are launched by Ministry of Rural Development
Ans : (D)

26. Where you are likely to find an embedded operating system ?
(A) on a desktop operating system
(B) on a networked PC
(C) on a network server
(D) on a PDA
(E) on a mainframe
Ans : (D)

27. An online discussion group that allows direct 'live' communication is known as–
(A) Webcrawler
(B) chat group
(C) regional service provider
(D) hyperlink
(E) e-mail
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different approaches to identify and eliminate spam ?
(A) Directory search
(B) Anti-spam program
(C) Web server
(D) Web storefront creation package
(E) Virus
Ans : (B)

29. Connection or link to other documents or Web Pages that contain related information is called–
(A) dial-up
(B) electronic commerce
(C) hyperlink
(D) e-cash
(E) domain name
Ans : (C)

30. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like
applets ?
(A) Java
(B) cable
(C) domain name
(D) Net
(E) COBOL
Ans : (A)

31. The system unit–
(A) coordinates input and output devices
(B) is the container that houses electronic components
(C) is a combination of hardware and software
(D) controls and manipulates data
(E) does the arithmetic operations
Ans : (C)

32. System software–
(A) allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the device
(B) is a programming language
(C) is part of a productivity suit
(D) is an optional form of software
(E) helps the computer manage internal resources
Ans : (E)

33. Computer and communication technologies, such as communication links to the Internet that provide help and understanding to the end user is known as–
(A) presentation file
(B) information technology
(C) program
(D) worksheet file
(E) FTP
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following is contained on chips connected to the system board and is a holding area for data instructions and information ? (processed data waiting to be output to secondary storage)
(A) program
(B) mouse
(C) Internet
(D) memory
(E) modem
Ans : (D)

35. Microsoft's Messenger allows users to–
(A) to bypass a browser to surf the Web
(B) create a blog
(C) communicate via direct live communication
(D) identify and eliminate spam
(E) make graphic presentations
Ans : (C)

36. Portable computer, also known as laptop computer, weighing between 4 and 10 pounds is called–
(A) general-purpose application
(B) Internet
(C) scanner
(D) printer
(E) notebook computer
Ans : (E)

37. The main circuit-board of the system unit is the–
(A) computer program
(B) control unit
(C) motherboard
(D) RAM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following is billionth of a second ?
(A) Gigabyte
(B) Terabyte
(C) Nanosecond
(D) Microsecond
(E) Terasecond
Ans : (C)

39. Online Marketing is the function of which of the following ?
(A) Purchase Section
(B) Production Department
(C) I.T. Department
(D) Designs Section
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)

40. Customisation is useful for–
(A) Designing customer specific products
(B) Call centers
(C) Publicity
(D) Motivating the staff
(E) Cold calls
Ans : (A)

41. The key challenge to market driven strategy is–
(A) Selling maximum products
(B) Employing maximum DSAs
(C) Delivering superior value to customers
(D) Being rigid to changes
(E) Adopting short term vision
Ans : (C)

42. Effective Selling skills depends on–
(A) Size of the sales teams
(B) Age of the sales teams
(C) Peerstrength
(D) Knowledge level of the sales team
(E) Educational level of the sales team
Ans : (C)

43. Generation of sales leads can be improved by–
(A) Being very talkative
(B) Increasing personal and professional contacts
(C) Being passive
(D) Engaging Recovery Agents
(E) Product designs
Ans : (B)

44. A Market Plan is–
(A) Performance Appraisal of marketing staff
(B) Company Prospectus
(C) Documented marketing strategies
(D) Business targets
(E) Call centre
Ans : (C)

45. Marketing channels mean–
(A) Delivery objects
(B) Sales targets
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery boys
(E) Sales teams
Ans : (C)

46. Social Marketing means–
(A) Share market prices
(B) Marketing by the entire society
(C) Internet Marketing
(D) Marketing for a social cause
(E) Society bye-laws
Ans : (D)

47. Service Marketing is the same as–
(A) Internet Marketing
(8) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) Transaction Marketing
Ans : (D)

48. Market driven strategies include–
(A) Identifying problems
(8) Planning marketing tactics of peers
(C) Positioning the Organisation and its brands in the market place
(D) Internal marketing
(E) Selling old products
Ans : (C)

49. Innovation in marketing is same as–
(A) Motivation
(8) Perspiration
(C) Aspiration
(D) Creativity
(E) Teamwork
Ans : (D)

50. Personal Loans can be canvassed among–
(A) Salaried persons
(8) Pensioners
(C) Foreign Nationals
(D) NRI customers
(E) Non-customers
Ans : (A)

SSC CPO Sub-Inspector Exam, 2011 : GK & General Awareness Solved Paper

2011-11-14T09:05:00.000-08:00

SSC C.P.O. Sub-Inspector Exam., 2011
(Held on 28-8-2011)
General Knowledge and General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. The adoption of High Yielding Variety Programme in Indian Agriculture started in–
(A) 1968
(B) 1967
(C) 1966
(D) 1965
Ans : (C)

2. 'Brown Revolution' is–
(A) Growth of fodder industry
(B) Growth of sea products
(C) Growth of milk and milk products
(D) Growth of food processing and soft drinks industries in India
Ans : To encourage tribal people to grow socially responsible and environment friendly coffee to cater to the demand from developed countries.

3. The total value of goods and services produced in a country during a given period is–
(A) Disposable income
(B) National income
(C) Per capita income
(D) Net national income
Ans : (B)

4. Mechanization of Indian agriculture on a considerable scale is not possible due to–
(A) Small holdings
(B) Lack of tractors
(C) Poverty of the peasants
(D) Indifference of the people
Ans : (A)

5. Which one of the following is not a function of the central bank in an economy?
(A) Dealing with foreign exchange
(B) Controlling monetary policy
(C) Controlling government spending
(D) Acting as a banker's bank
Ans : (C)

6. The three-tier Panchayat Raj System in India was proposed by the–
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Royal Commission
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

7. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machinery ?
(A) 352
(B) 356
(C) 360
(D) 350
Ans : (B)

8. Through which principle / device did Mahatma Gandhi strive to bridge economic inequalities ?
(A) Abolition of machinery
(B) Establishment of village industries
(C) Adoption of non-violence
(D) Trusteeship theory
Ans : (D)

9. Who said that "Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you!" ?
(A) G. B. Shaw
(B) Carpenter
(C) Lord Bryce
(D) Appa Dorai
Ans : (A)

10. The member-states of the U.N.O. have delegated the primary responsibility for maintaining world peace and security to the–
(A) General Assembly
(B) Economic and Social Council (EcoSoC)
(C) Security Council
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist text produced in India ?
(A) Divya Vandana
(B) Dohakosa
(C) Vajrachedika
(D) Vamsathapakasini
Ans : (C)

12. Arthasastra was written by–
(A) Dhanananda
(B) Kautilya
(C) Bimbisara
(D) Pushyamitra
Ans : (B)

13. Who translated Ramayana into Persian ?
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Badauni
(C) Abdul Latif
(D) Isar Das
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following was the first English ship that came to India ?
(A) Elizabeth
(B) Bengal
(C) Red Dragon
(D) Mayflower
Ans : (A)

15. The All India Muslim League was founded by–
(A) Maulana Ahmed Ali
(B) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(C) Agha Khan
(D) Hakim Ajmal Khan
Ans : (C)

16. Golden Revolution refers to–
(A) Sericulture
(B) Horticulture
(C) Apiculture
(D) Viticulture
Ans : (B)

17. Which one of the following is a major port on the East Coast of India ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Vishakhapattnam
(C) Karikal
(D) Pondicherry (Puducherry)
Ans : (B)

18. The approximate circumference of the Earth is–
(A) 13,000 km
(B) 20,000 km
(C) 25,000 km
(D) 30,000 km
Ans : (A)

19. When did India join the International Tsunami Warning System ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans : (A)

20. 'Cod' is a variety of–
(A) Goat
(B) Fish
(C) Crop
(D) Coral
Ans : (B)

21. A large number of identical plants can be obtained in a short span of time through–
(A) Large number of seeds of a single plant
(B) Stem cuttings
(C) Tissue culture technique
(D) Hydroponics method
Ans : (C)

22. The smallest flowering plant is–
(A) Wolffia
(B) Lemma
(C) Azolla
(D) Ficus
Ans : (A)

23. Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal increase of the–
(A) Red blood cells
(B) White blood cells
(C) Blood platelets
(D) Blood plasma
Ans : (B)

24. The total number of bones in our body is–
(A) 226
(B) 206
(C) 256
(D) 236
Ans : (B)

25. The poison of honey bee is–
(A) Acidic
(B) Alkaline
(C) Saltish
(D) Protein
Ans : (A)

26. Birds which swim in water have–
(A) Webbed feet
(B) Broad wings
(C) Long beaks
(D) Toes with claws
Ans : (A)

27. A balloon filled with helium rises in air because–
(A) Air exerts an upward force on the balloon
(B) The balloon is weightless
(C) Helium is less dense than air
(D) Helium pushes down on the air below the balloon
Ans : (C)

28. One can distinguish a telescope from a microscope by observing–
(A) Length
(B) Colour
(C) Size of the lens
(D) Length and size of the lens
Ans : (C)

29. The sound produced by a bat is–
(A) Audible
(B) Subsonic
(C) Infrasonic
(D) Ultrasonic
Ans : (D)

30. When a bar magnet is cut into two equal halves, the pole strength of each piece–
(A) Becomes double
(B) Becomes half
(C) Becomes zero
(D) Remains the same
Ans : (D)

31. Cooking oil is converted into vegetable ghee by the process of–
(A) Crystallisation
(B) Condensation
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Oxidation
Ans : (C)

32. Rusting of iron requires–
(A) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(8) Oxygen and water
(C) Carbon dioxide only
(0) Oxygen only
Ans : (B)

33. Glass is a–
(A) Pure solid
(B) Supercooled liquid
(C) Gel
(D) Polymer
Ans : (B)

34. Uranium eventually decays into a stable isotope of–
(A) Radium
(B) Thorium
(C) Lead
(D) Polonium
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the toxic heavy metals is found in modem tannery industries ?
(A) Nickel
(B) Zinc
(C) Chromium
(D) Lead
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following contains high content of lead ?
(A) Coal
(B) Cooking gas
(C) High octane fuel
(D) Low octane fuel
Ans : (C)

37. Electrostatic precipitator is used to control–
(A) Air pollution
(B) Water pollution
(C) Solid waste
(D) Noise pollution
Ans : (A)

38. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is located at–
(A) Pune
(B) Delhi
(C) Nagpur
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

39. A new technology which provides the ability to create an artificial world and have people interact with it is called–
(A) Televirtuality
(B) Virtual reality
(C) Alternate reality
(D) 3-D reality
Ans : (A)

40. A parallel port is most often used by a–
(A) Printer
(B) Monitor
(C) Mouse
(D) External storage device
Ans : (A)

41. Kuchipudi is a dance-drama associated with the State of–
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Manipur
Ans : (B)

42. X-rayswere discovered by–
(A) Faraday
(B) Roentgen
(C) H. Davy
(D) Lavoisier
Ans : (B)

43. Who among the following is not a recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award ?
(A) V. Shantaram
(B) Raj Kapoor
(C) Mukesh Bhatt
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)

44. The book 'Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India' was in news some time back and was banned in some Indian States including Gujarat. The author of the book is–
(A) Joseph Lelyveld
(B) Michael Ondaatje
(C) Jack Welch
(D) Duncan Green
Ans : (A)

45. The secret operation carried out successfully by the US Navy Seals, in which Osama Bin Laden, the world's most wanted terrorist was killed, was code-named as–
(A) Jasmine
(B) Rose
(C) Geronimo
(D) Cobra
Ans : (C)

46. As per the latest 'Sample Registration Survey Report' released some time back by the Census Office at New Delhi, there has been a significant improvement in the 'Newborn Mortality Rate' per 1000 live births in India during the period 1990-2009. What has been the percentage drop during this period ?
(A) 33%
(B) 29%
(C) 35%
(D) 42%
Ans : (A)

47. Premlata Agarwal has become the oldest Indian woman to scale Mount Everest at the age of 45. She belongs to the State of–
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)

48. The government set up a committee headed by the Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes some time back to go into–
(A) Codification of tax laws
(B) The entire structure of tax laws including the question of imposition of bank tax
(C) The concerns of the foreign investors in India with regard to taxation matters
(D) Aspects of generation of black money, its transfer abroad and bringing back such money into India's legitimate financial system
Ans : (D)

49. Who got the 'Purple Cap' for taking maximum number of wickets in IPL-4 series ?
(A) Harbhajan Singh
(B) Lasith Malinga
(C) Daniel Vettori
(D) Albie Morkel
Ans : (B)

50. At which place did the Union Finance Minister, Pranab Mukherjee lay the foundation stone for anew banknote paper mill some time back ?
(A) Surat
(B) Aurangabad
(C) Mysore
(D) Guntur
Ans : (C)

Agriculture Colleges in India

2011-11-13T07:13:00.000-08:00

List of Agriculture University in India

State Agricultural Universities/Central University
1. Acharya NG Ranga Agricultural University, Rajendranagar, Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
2. Anand Agricultural University, Anand (Gujarat)
3. Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat (Assam)
4. Bidhan Chandra Krishi Viswavidyalaya, P.O. Krishi Viswavidyalaya, Mohanpur, Nadia (West Bengal)
5. Birsa Agricultural University, Kanke, Ranchi (Jharkhand)
6. Central Agricultural University, Imphal (Manipur)
7. Chandra Shekar Azad University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
8. Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University, Hissar (Haryana)
9. Chaudhary Sarwan Kumar Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishvavidhalaya, Palampur, Kangra (Himachal Pradesh)
10. Dr Balasaheb Sawant Konkan Krishi Vidyapeeth, Dapoli, Ratnagiri (Maharashtra)
11. Dr Panjabrao Deshmukh Krishi Vidyapeeth, Krishi Nagar, Akola (Maharashtra)
12. Dr Yashwant Singh Parmar University of Horticulture & Forestry, Solan,
Nauni (Himachal Pradesh)
13. Govind Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pantnagar, Udhamsingh Nagar (Uttarakhand)
14. Guru Angad Dev University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences, Ludhiana (Punjab)
15. Indira Gandhi Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Krishak Nagar, Raipur (Chhattisgarh)
16. Jawaharlal Nehru Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Krishi Nagar, Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh)
17. Junagadh Agriculture University, Moti Baug, Agril. Campus, Junagadh (Gujarat)
18. Karnataka Veterinary Animal and Fisheries Science University, P.B. No. 6, Nandinagar, Bidar (Karnataka)
19. Kerala Agricultural University, P.O Vellanikkara, Thrissur (Kerala)
20. Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture & Technology, Udaipur (Rajasthan)
21. Maharashtra Animal Science & Fishery University, Nagpur (Maharashtra)
22. Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth, Rahuri (Maharashtra)
23. Marathwada Agricultural University, Parbhani (Maharashtra)
24. Narendra Deva University of Agriculture & Technology, Kumarganj, Faizabad (Uttar Pradesh)
25. Navsari Agricultural University, Vijalpore, Navsari (Gujarat)
26. Orissa University of Agriculture & Technology, Siripur, Bhubaneswar (Orissa)
27. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana (Punjab)
28. Rajasthan AgriculturalUniversity, Bikaner (Rajasthan)
29. Rajendra Agricultural University, Pusa, Samastipur (Bihar)
30. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel University of Agriculture & Technology, Modipuram,
Meerut (Uttar Pradesh)
31. Sardarkrushinagar-Dantiwada Agricultural University, Sardarkrushinagar, Dantiwada, Banaskantha (Gujarat)
32. Sher-E-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences & Technology, Railway Road, Jammu (J&K)
33. Sher-E-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences & Technology, Shalimar, Srinagar (J&K)
34. Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Tirupati, Chittoor (Andhra Pradesh)
35. Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu)
36. Tamil Nadu Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Madhavaram Milk Colony, Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
37. University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad (Karnataka)
38. University of Agricultural Sciences, Banglore (Karnataka)
39. UP Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhaya Pashu Chikitsa Vigyan Vishwa Vidhyalaya Evam
Go Anusandhan Sansthan, Mathura (Uttar Pradesh)
40. Uttar Banga Krishi Vishwaviddyalaya, P.O. Pundibari, Distt. Cooch Behar (West Bengal)
41. West Bengal University of Animal & Fishery Sciences, 68 KB Sarani, Kolkata (West Bengal)
42. University of Horticultural Sciences, Venkataramnagudem, West Godavari (Andhra Pradesh)
43. Rajmata VRS Agricultural University, Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh)
44. University of Horticultural Sciences, Navanagar, Bagalkot (Karnataka)
45. University of Agricultural Sciences, Raichur (Karnataka)

Deemed-to-be Universities
1. Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa, New Delhi
2. Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Izatnagar, Bareilly (Uttar Pradesh)
3. National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal (Haryana)
4. Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai (Maharashtra)
5. Allahabad Agricultural Institute, Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh)

Central Universities with Agriculture Faculty
1. Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
2. Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh (Uttar Pradesh)
3. Vishwa Bharti, Shantiniketan (West Bengal)
4. Nagaland University, Medizipherma (Nagaland)

Dena Bank Clerk Exam, 2011: English Language (Fully Solved)

2011-11-09T08:32:00.000-08:00

Dena Bank Clerk Exam, 2011: English Language Solved Paper

Dena Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 6-3-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions– (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / expressions are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

"My God, it speaks" uttered the Emperor of Brazil and the receiver of the Telephone slipped from his hand and banged aground. At the other end Alexander Graham Bell was still on line.

This incident goes back to 1876 when at an exhibition in Philadelphia (USA), Alexander Graham Bell was giving a demonstration of his new invention. This strange instrument known as Telephone was to revolutionize life in the years to come.

Bell was born at Edinborough, Scotland. He was a teacher and, was dedicated to the noble cause of teaching the deaf and the dumb. Due to a severe illness, Bell was sent to Canada in 1870, where too he got engaged in helping the dumb-deaf to hear and speak. Thereafter, he shifted to the USA but continued with his work by opening a school for deaf and dumb.

Bell was fond of scientific inventions and was ever engaged in making some machines in his spare time. While at Boston, he tried to communicate through metal wire. His companion in this work was Watson. One day while experimenting with his instrument, Bell spoke to Watson standing at a distance. Watson was taken by a pleasant surprise as he had heard Bell clearly through his instrument. The instrument was a success and Bell patented it.

Graham Bell had some sterling qualities of head and heart. Apart from being an artist, he was a kind human being, ready to help the needy. He established an institution for the deaf and dumb children. He died in 1922 in Canada. The entire Northern America paid him a tribute by hanging up their telephones for awhile during his funeral.

1. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a quality of Graham Bell ?
(A) Lover of art
(B) Kind natured person
(C) Cooperative individual
(D) Curiosity
(E) All these are mentioned
Ans : (D)

2. The words uttered by the Emperor of Brazil suggest that he was extremely–
(A) angry
(B) insulted
(C) surprised
(D) agitated
(E) sad
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following made Bell to invent telephone ?
(A) His activity of teaching
(B) His service to the deaf and dumb
(C) His keen interest in scientific inventions
(D) Encouragement received from Watson
(E) The request from Emperor of Brazil
Ans : (C)

4. What according to the passage was the contribution of invention of telephone ?
(A) Interaction between two persons at some distance was possible
(B) Rich people were able to communicate with others
(C) Graham Bell could converse with Watson regarding invention through telephone
(D) It revolutionized human life
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Graham Bell made the telephone call of his invention to the Emperor from the city of –
(A) Edinborough
(B) Philadelphia
(C) Brazil
(D) Boston
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. The teaching activity undertaken by Bell was considered 'noble' particularly because–
(A) he was teaching the physically under-privileged persons
(B) there was nobody else in the field of education
(C) he was not accepting any salary for that job
(D) he was a very famous scientist of his times
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. The North Americans paid their last respects to Bell by–
(A) attending his funeral
(B) suspending telephone lines for some time during his funeral
(C) establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children
(D) showing their readiness to help the poor and needy
(E) patenting his invention
Ans : (B)

8. Bell had gone to Canada in 1870 for–
(A) treating a patient who was seriously ill
(B) helping the deaf and dumb children to hear and speak
(C) undergoing medical treatment for himself
(D) devoting his full time to his invention
(E) giving demonstration of his invention
Ans : (C)

9. Bell establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children shows that he was–
(A) an expert scientist
(B) a curious explorer
(C) a dedicated social worker
(D) genuinely emphatic towards the technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 10–12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Dedicated
(A) Appointed
(B) Deployed
(C) Devoted
(D) Religious
(E) Noteworthy
Ans : (C)

11. Apart from
(A) In addition to
(B) At a long distance
(C) Separated from
(D) Inspite of
(E) As against
Ans : (C)

12. Revolutionize
(A) Affect adversely
(B) Develop gradually
(C) Illuminate completely
(D) Change drastically
(E) Emphasize favourably
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Pleasant
(A) Admirable
(B) Disgusting
(C) Nice
(D) Indecent
(E) Unexpected
Ans : (B)

14. Strange
(A) Familiar
(B) Unseen
(C) Illfamed
(D) Novel
(E) Conservative
Ans : (A)

15. Continued
(A) Irregular
(B) Destroyed
(C) Reckoned
(D) Suspended
(E) Carried on
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 16–30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

16. It was clear from the way (A) / they were behaving (B) / that they had been (C) / lost their senses. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. A small piece (A) / of bread is (B) / better than (C) / having nothing to eat. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

18. When he had been (A) / walked along the road (B) / a wild and ferocious dog (C) / hit him hard and knocked him down. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

19. That boy possess (A) / three beautiful pens (B) / but he would not (C) / show them to anyone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

20. I am grateful to you (A) / and all your friends (B) / for Showing sympathy (C) / and kindness with me. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

21. Though I had been (A) / his friend for quite a long time, (B) / I refused to help him (C) / because his ill nature. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. Families are (A) / fortunate enough to own (B) / a house in the city (C) / are very few. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

23. Ramesh has been both (A) / a dishonestly person (B) / and a gambler (C) / since his childhood. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Everyone of us know (A) / that he is not capable of (B) / remaining under water (C) / for such a long time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

25. He is the man (A) / who I know (B) / has helped my son (C) / in the final examination. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

26. The number of employees (A) / reporting sick (B) / has reduced significantly (C) / because of the incentive. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

27. Your television set (A) / is superior to (B) / our television set (C) / by all respects. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

28. I have been (A) / living in Hyderabad (B) / at my uncle (C) / since my birth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. The leader was so shrewd (A) / that he could not deceive (B) / by the words of (C) / the sycophant courtiers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The boy who was guilt for (A) / having broken the window glass (B) / came out (C) / with the truth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. He felt that his honest ways were responsible for the poverty and starvation of his family.
2. Sixteen miles away from Mysore, there is a dense forest.
3. He told them how his honesty was useless and asked if he should try an alternative.
4. They 1old him that they would prefer starving to dishonesty.
5. Once there lived a poor but honest woodcutter in the forest.
6. So he wanted to discuss his feeling with his wife and children.

31. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

33. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 36–40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful complete.

36. You must ensure the correctness of the information before…………….to conclusion.
(A) drawing
(B) enabling
(C) leaning
(D) jumping
(E) examining
Ans : (A)

37. The rocket…………….the target and did not cause any casualty.
(A) sensed
(B) reached
(C) missed
(D) exploded
(E) aimed
Ans : (C)

38. It is desirable to take…………….in any business if you want to make profit.
(A) advice
(B) risk
(C) loan
(D) recourse
(E) perseverance
Ans : (B)

39. They wasted all the money on purchase of some…………….items.
(A) excellent
(B) important
(C) significant
(D) quality
(E) trivial
Ans : (E)

40. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was…………….
(A) empty
(B) vacant
(C) recovered
(D) stolen
(E) expensive
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Jamshedji Tata is ...(41)... to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He is known as the grandfather of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm. Nobody else could have ...(42)... of the new industries started by Jamshedji at that time when industrial ...(43)... and revolution was yet to come to India.

Jamshedji's father Nasarvanji Tata used to trade in jute with China and Britain. He started...(44) ...from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the …(45)... used to come from Lancashire in England. What Jamshedji ...(46)... was praiseworthy.

Jamshedji ...(47)... very well that an industrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up iron and steel industry …(48). ..he did not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had done all...(49)... work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now known as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches, etc. His...(50) ...was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata Iron & Steel Factory in 1907 just after three years of his death.

41. (A) rewarded
(B) agreed
(C) empowere?
(D) determined
(E) considered
Ans : (E)

42. (A) absolved
(B) thought
(C) ventured
(D) set
(E) planned
Ans : (B)

43. (A) imports
(B) acts
(C) machinery
(D) awakening
(E) factories
Ans : (D)

44. (A) export
(B) industries
(C) import
(D) trade
(E) dispatch
Ans : (A)

45. (A) goods
(B) imports
(C) cloth
(D) machines
(E) industries
Ans : (C)

46. (A) did
(B) dreamt
(C) agreed
(D) told
(E) meant
Ans : (A)

47. (A) felt
(B) advocated
(C) planned
(D) thought
(E) knew
Ans : (E)

48. (A) Because
(B) Although
(C) Surprisingly
(D) Luckily
(E) Even
Ans : (B)

49. (A) insignificant
(B) complete
(C) trivial
(D) preliminary
(E) external
Ans : (D)

50. (A) need
(B) task
(C) dream
(D) industry
(E) sentiment
Ans : (C)

IBPS Bank PO Solved Paper : English Language

2011-11-01T19:36:00.000-07:00

IBPS Bank Probationary Officers/Management Trainees, 2011
(Held on 18-09-2011)
English Language: Solved Paper

Directions—(1-5) : In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, ......... These range from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.
(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(B) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age.
(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.\
Ans : (A)

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun's rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without takling greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as withnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.
(A) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(B) This phenomenoun thus is part of the climate change problem.
(C) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(D) At first, it sounds like and ironic saviour to climate change problems
(E) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here
Ans : (C)

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world's people and nations. Why is this ? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight ? What about their governments ? Hove they pursued policies that actually harm successful development ? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.
(A) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(B) What is the government doing about it?
(C) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(D) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(E) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing
Ans : (A)

4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and dement from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a millionplus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It's simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down..........
(A) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(B) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(C) Thereby making them more expensive.
(D) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(E) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.
Ans : (C)

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world....... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face successfully competition in the job market.
(A) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(B) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(C) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(D) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(E) In the next decade it will become the most populous.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the prespecified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either normreferenced (NRM) or criterionreferenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the tought or learned material.
(G) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical dimensions."

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man's world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe
(A) (4) and (5)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (6)
(D) (2) and (5)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

12. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.
(1) manufactured
(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought
(6) compard
(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (5) and (6)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

13. An organisation .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off
(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated
(A) (3) and (6)
(B) (1) and (5)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (4) and (6)
(E) (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner's Task Force.
(1) possessing
(2) examining
(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating
(A) (2) and (3)
(B) (3) and (6)
(C) (1) and (5)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (4) and (5)
Ans : (C)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.
(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted
(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (6)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct altemative from (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK
(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

17. REGULAR
(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

18. LABOUR
(1) Expedite
(2) To mave faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (A)

19. MEAN
(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice
(A) Only (3)
(B) Both (1) and (4)
(C) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

20. ALONE
(1) exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(21-35) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As the country embarks on planning (21) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (22) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.

Growh is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (23) huge demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (24) like never before in the 12th Plan and (25)

By the rule of the thumb, India will (26) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of copacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (27) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the ternpered demand numbers are (28) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (29) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (30) in the foresseable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent cab be (31) to be added in the five-year time block.

(32) (33) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (34) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (35) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (A) On
(B) Against
(C) For
(D) Onwards
(E) At
Ans : (C)

22. (A) Where
(B) That
(C) Inside
(D) Always
(E) Who
Ans : (D)

23. (A) Replace
(B) Forward
(C) Subject
(D) Place
(E) Demand
Ans : (D)

24. (A) Light
(B) Pass
(C) Publish
(D) Feature
(E) Find
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Earlier
(B) Likewise
(C) Publicity
(D) Next
(E) After
Ans : (E)

26. (A) Consumed
(B) Waste
(C) Require
(D) Highlight
(E) Generate
Ans : (C)

27. (A) Developmental
(B) Structures
(C) Efforts
(D) Projections
(E) Practices
Ans : (C)

28. (A) Likely
(B) Sure
(C) Unsure
(D) Unexpected
(E) Unlikely
Ans : (E)

29. (A) Expected
(B) Nominal
(C) Excelied
(D) Higher
(E) Lower
Ans : (D)

30. (A) Marginal
(B) Failure
(C) Success
(D) Dangerous
(E) Maxiimum
Ans : (A)

31. (A) Sure
(B) Certain
(C) Linked
(D) remarked
(E) Expected
Ans : (E)

32. (A) As
(B) When
(C) But
(D) However
(E) If
Ans : (A)

33. (A) Against
(B) For
(C) With
(D) Is
(E) Ever
Ans : (A)

34. (A) Capacity
(B) Through
(C) Project
(D) Versus
(E) Against
Ans : (B)

35. (A) Generating
(B) Lightening
(C) Making
(D) Touching
(E) Saving
Ans : (D)

Directions—(36-43) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that the country's economy is likely to grow at a double digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But the private sector which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the world's tenth largest economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often carp about India's problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7,8 percent; in 2005-07 it managed 9-10 percent. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt over wheher India can grow at 8-10 percent in the medium term without overheating.

In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest abroad that at home, in deals thatare often hailed as symbois of the country's growing clout but sometimes speak to its weaknesses - purchases of natural resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of the ground. In fact a further dip in investment could be selffulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short term growth figures and reduce the economy's long term capacity.

There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not try very hard. The liberalisation reforms that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition, at the same time what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc remain unreformed and largely under state control, which creates difficulties. Clearngces today can take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force. This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and an education system that means finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact the Planning Commission, concluded that even achieving 9 percent growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years age it was said that yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.

36. Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(A) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rare at present.
(B) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(C) citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(D) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.
(E) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
Ans : (A)

37. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian balour force?
(1) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
(2) High attrition rate among employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit.
(3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating emploment.
(A) Only (3)
(B) All (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(A) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(B) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(C) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(D) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by the State.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
(A) Showcasing the potential of India's growth potential to entice foreign investors .
(B) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential.
(C) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries
(D) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects.
(E) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global economic crisis.
Ans : (B)

40. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
(1) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
(2) India has achieved status as the world's third largest economy at present.
(3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
(A) Only (1)
(B) All (1), (B) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word CLOUT given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Strike
(B) Standing
(C) Force
(D) Launch
(E) Achieve
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Decreased
(B) Lgnored
(C) Clear
(D) Assessed
(E) Imperceptible
Ans : (E)

43. What measures do experts suggest be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
(A) Loweing of interest rates to help industries hit by recession.
(B) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries.
(C) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture.
(D) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor markets
(E) Stringent implementation of licensing system.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(44-50) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in turn spilld over into uprising. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course - until recently, many Arab countries managed to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government.

This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half century may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the woment in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, raiway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.

44. Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
(B) Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government
(C) Educated societies with autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
(D) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
(E) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms.
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Upgrades
(B) Prefers
(C) Recommends
(D) Advocates
(E) Publicises
Ans : (D)

46. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt's education system?
(A) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
(B) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt's education system.
(C) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated demographies in the world.
(D) Egypt is likely to be successful vibrant democracy.
(E) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recant times.
Ans : (E)

47. In the context of the passage which of the following characterise (s) democracies?
(1) Active participation of majority of educated citizens in electoral process.
(2) Fast paced economic growth and accountability of those in power.
(3) Better standards of living and access to higher education.
(A) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What according to the author has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
(A) Lack of access to education.
(B) Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
(C) Frustration with the existing system of governance.
(D) Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil.
(E) Government's overambitious plans for development.
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(1) China's citizens are in favour of a more representative form of government.
(2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure developments.
(3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
(A) None (B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

50. What does the phrase "messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
(B) Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
(C) The divide between the poor and educated is growing wider in democracies.
(D) High levels of pollution on account of frentic pace of infrastructurd development.
(E) Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system.
Ans : (C)

Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Recruitment 2011

2011-10-31T18:27:00.000-07:00

Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Recruitment Oct 2011
112 Office Assistant (Multipurpose) - Group-“B”

Online applications have been invited from eligible candidates for filling up 112 vacant posts of Office Assistant / Clerk in Bihar kshetriya Gramin Bank (BKGB). Those Indian candidates who are residents of Bihar may apply for this recruitment only. Willing candidate, who has relevant educational qualification, age limit, may apply through online process only. Online registration link will be activated from 1st November 2011 and will be inactivated after 30th November 2011. Candidates who want to apply are advised that they should fill online application form up to last date of online registration. Details of the recruitment are as follow:

Name of the post: Office Assistant / Clerk (Group-B)
Total number of posts: 112
Post Reservation for: Gen-63, OBC-30, SC-18 and ST-01
Pay Scale: Rs. 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/1-19300
Salary: In starting period of appointment emoluments are approximately Rs. 12,880/- per month.
Eligibility Conditions to apply for the post:
i) Citizenship – The candidates must be citizens of India and Domicile of Bihar also.
ii) Age limit: Should be minimum 18 years and maximum 28 years as on 1st October 2011.
Relaxation in upper age limit will be given to the reserved category candidates by as per Central Government norms which are given in the advertisement details notification.
iii) Required educational qualification (as on 1st October 2011):
a) Bachelor Degree in any discipline or its equivalent degree from recognized University.
b) Knowledge of Hindi Language.

Fees of application: Rs. 450/- for Gen and OBC candidates and Rs. 50/- for SC/ST/PH candidates.
Mode of payment: Through Challan which should be made from any branch of UCO Bank.
How to apply: For this recruitment, candidates should apply through online process only. The applications which will be sent by other means will be not accepted.
Process to apply online: Firstly the candidates should visit the website of BKGB and open the online registration form through the link ”Office Assistant / Clerk Recruitment 2011” and fill the online application form which will be available from 1st November 2011 properly and correctly with all required details. Candidates should have a valid email Id. If the candidates have not a valid email Id they must create a new email Id before applying. After filling up application form, the candidate must check his/her filled applications form carefully then finally click on the submit button. After submission of online application, the candidate must note his/her registration number and password and take a hard copy of the online application form which will be generated by the system.
Important Dates:
Opening date for online registration: 01/11/2011
Closing date for online registration: 30/11/2011
Last date for editing online applications: 02/12/2011
Date of written examination: 15/01/2012
Date for downloading pre-examination training call letter: From 20/12/2011 to 31/12/2011
Selection Process: On the basis of written examination and interview.
“‘Details of BKGB Clerk advertisement”
”For downloading Challan”
Official website of BKGB - http://www.bkgbank.in/index.php

PNB Clerk Exam, 2011 : Marketing and Computer Solved

2011-10-27T18:58:00.000-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2011
(Held on 19-6-2011)
Marketing and Computer : Solved Paper
General English (Part-III)

Directions–In Question Nos. 51 to 55, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle (■) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B), (C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding (D) in the Answer sheet.

51. Neither Ramesh nor Rajendra (A) / has done (B) / their work properly. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (C)

52. The two sisters shouted (A) / at one another (B) / in public. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (B)

53. With a good line and length, (A) / the spinners were able (B) / to peg the batsmen down. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (D)

54. Gita doesn't usually (A) / wear jewellery but yesterday (B) / she wore ring. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (C)

55. The college (A) / is running a computer course (B) / since 2007. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (B)

Directions–In Question Nos. 56 to 60, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the -appropriate rectangle (■) in the Answer Sheet.

56. That week the dollar dropped ……………its lowest levels.
(A) to
(B) at
(C) towards
(D) by
Ans : (A)

57. I just……………that Peter is in Australia.
(A) am hearing
(B) hearing
(C) have heard
(D) heard
Ans : (D)

58. To write regularly ……………is what she wants to do now.
(A) in pleasure
(B) for the pleasure
(C) with the pleasure
(D) for pleasure
Ans : (D)

59. This is a good……………for the, school.
(A) sight
(B) cite
(C) site
(D) spot
Ans : (C)

60. I ……………rather die than join the gang of terrorists.
(A) could
(B) should
(C) would
(D) can
Ans : (B)

Directions–In Question Nos. 61 to 65, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

61. diligent
(A) intelligent
(B) energetic
(C) modest
(D) industrious
Ans : (D)

62. familiar
(A) well-known
(B) familial
(C) relative
(D) common
Ans : (A)

63. dessert
(A) wasteland
(B) abandon
(C) sweet-dish
(D) broth
Ans : (C)

64. affiliate
(A) control
(B) associate
(C) copy
(D) discriminate
Ans : (B)

65. explicit
(A) clear
(B) obvious
(C) cautious
(D) exorbitant
Ans : (A)

Directions-In Question Nos. 66 to 70, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

66. innovate
(A) sell
(B) buy
(C) choose
(D) copy
Ans : (D)

67. anxious
(A) crafty
(B) light
(C) carefree
(D) careless
Ans : (D)

68. hazy
(A) plain
(B) light
(C) clear
(D) dull
Ans : (C)

69. thrifty
(A) clean
(B) loyal
(C) wasteful
(D) reverent
Ans : (C)

70. fantastic
(A) old
(B) ordinary
(C) classic
(D) rational
Ans : (B)

Directions–In Question Nos. 71 to 75, four alternatives are given for the bold printed idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase and blacken the appropriate rectangle (■) in the Answer Sheet.

71. All his schemes to murder the king ended in smoke.
(A) fructified gradually
(B) came to nothing
(C) were discarded
(D) were partially carried out
Ans : (B)

12. This fashion of long flowing skirts will run its course.
(A) continue for a long time
(B) become very popular
(C) develop and then come to its usual end
(D) end very soon
Ans : (C)

73. The A. T.S. set the bait to arrest the terrorists.
(A) laid the trap
(B) announced the reward
(C) set the record
(D) put the bet
Ans : (A)

74. I have decided to give it a shot.
(A) click a picture
(B) try something
(C) pose for a picture
(D) injure someone
Ans : (B)

75. He turned a blind eye to his son's pranks.
(A) pretended not to notice
(B) paid special attention to
(C) covered up for
(D) punished severely
Ans : (A)

Directions–ln Question Nos. 76 to 80, a part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement it needed your answer is (D).

76. As he was a braveheart, Rakeshj decided to join the army.
(A) Though he was a braveheart
(B) Although he was a braveheart
(C) While he was a bravehealt
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)

77. She hurt her back while she worked yesterday.
(A) worked out
(B) had worked
(C) was working
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

78. Due to emergency conditions, the army was asked to stand up.
(A) stand out
(B) stand in
(C) stand by
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

79. He kept us all in suspension regarding his future plans.
(A) suspending
(B) suspense
(C) suspicion
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)

80. He returned the book after he read it.
(A) was read
(B) reading
(C) had read
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

Directions– In Question Nos. 81 to 85, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

81. Study of relations of organisms to one another and to their surroundings–
(A) Biology
(B) Ecology
(C) Psychology
(D) Physiology
Ans : (B)

82. Boundary of an area–
(A) Porch
(B) Periphery
(C) Balcony
(D) Verandah
Ans : (B)

83. A war of religions–
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Contraband
(C) Cavalry
(D) Crusade
Ans : (D)

84. The Government by the nobility–
(A) Bureaucracy
(B) Aristocracy
(C) Autocracy
(D) Oligarchy
Ans : (B)

85. To store and stock–
(A) Hail
(B) Hide
(C) Hoard
(D) Horde
Ans : (C)

Directions–In Question Nos. 86 to 90, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

86. (A) intern1itent
(B) intermittant
(C) intermittent
(D) intermitant
Ans : (C)

87. (A) acommodation
(B) accommodation
(C) accomodation
(D) accommodation
Ans : (B)

88. (A) sovereignty
{B) soveriegnty
(C) sovereignity
(D) soveriegnity
Ans : (A)

89. (A) greivance
(B) grievance
(C) griveance
(D) grieveance
Ans : (B)

90. (A) occassion
(B) occasion
(C) ocasion
(D) ocassion
Ans : (B)

Directions–In the following passage (Question Nos. 91 to 100), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Ants go in groups in search of food. To do this, ...(91)... a few worker ants, ...(92)... scouts, go out of their nests to forage. ..(93). ..food. Once an ...(94)... source of food is ...(95)... by a scout ant, it ...(96)... to the nest with a sample. While ...(97) ...so, it ejects a chemical and ...(98) ...an invisible line from the ...(99)... of food to its nest. It then contacts other ants who also follow the. ..(100) ...procedure. More and more worker ants are brought in and the food is slowly taken back to the nest.

91. (A) primarily
(B) initially
(C) hastilly
(D) systematically
Ans : (B)

92. (A) called
(B) named
(C) identified
(D) depicted
Ans : (A)

43. (A) after
(B) by
(C) for
(D) upon
Ans : (C)

94. (A) unusual
(B) enriched
(C) excessive
(D) abundant
Ans : (D)

95. (A) found
(B) reached
(C) targeted
(D) recognised
Ans : (A)

96. (A) accesses
(B) returns
(C) goes
(D) climbs
Ans : (B)

97. (A) pulling
(B) crawling
(C) doing
(D) going
Ans : (C)

98. (A) draws
(B) files
(C) touches
(D) pushes
Ans : (A)

99. (A) place
(B) source
(C) house
(D) vessel
Ans : (B)

100. (A) same
(B) agreed
(C) matching
(D) parallel
Ans : (A)

PNB Clerk (First Shift) Exam, 2011: English Language (Solved)

2011-10-27T18:07:00.000-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2011
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 19-6-2011)

Directions–(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases/sentences have been printed in bold/italics to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“The best man in the whole tribe is Manute the brave", everyone would say, You could see for yourself, at any time of the day, just how brave he was. He would jump to the ground from amazing heights, he would fight poisonous snakes, he would catch scorpions with his bare hands, and could cut the palm of his own hand with a knife-without even a flinch. They said the exact opposite about Pontoma. No one had seen him catch even a monkey.

One day, they happened upon each other in the forest, and Manute was showing Pontoma a coral snake he had just caught, when there began a downpour, the likes of which no one had ever seen. The both ran to shelter themselves under some thick foliage, and there they stayed until the rain had stopped.

However, when they were about to leave the shelter, they heard the roar of a tiger, at a distance of only a couple of metres. The foliage was very thick and dense, and the tiger wouldn't be able to get through it to attack them. However, the tiger was almost at the entrance hole. If it happened to come in and find the two tribesmen there, they certainly wouldn't get out alive. Manute was getting restless. He wanted to get out of that tight hole, and confront the tiger in open space, where he could fully use his great hunting skills. Pontoma was gesturing at him to keep still and be quiet, but Manute, tired of being stuck with a coward, leapt out of the thicket, surprising the tiger.

The tiger suffered a couple of deep wounds, but soon recovered and hurt Manute with two swipes of its paw, throwing him to the ground. The tiger took the initiative, and leapt upon Manute, but Manute's spear, in the hands of Pontoma, interrupted the tiger's attack. The tiger turned away, wounded, but the spear moved as fast as a beam of light, and with incredible precision, hurting the animal again and again, until it fell to the ground, lifeless.

Manute, shocked, and bleeding freely from his injuries, witnessed all his while lying flat on his back on the ground. Never before had he seen anyone take on a tiger, and use the spear with such calmness and strength, as he had seen Pontoma do just now. Neither of them said a thing. Manute's grateful expression needed no words to be understood. .Nor did they need words to know about Pontoma's wounded hand, or the fact that they were leaving a tiger skin there in the forest.

From that day on, people gradually remarked less on Manute's braveness. They thought may be he was less courageous than before. The strangest thing was that they now noticed that Manute's old spear was among Pontoma' s things. But Manute just smiled, and remembered the day he learned that true bravery lay not in seeking out danger, but in controlling one's fear when danger crosses your path.

1. What did Manute learn from Pontoma ?
(A) That to be brave, one needs to have friends around who can help in times of crisis
(B) That to be brave, one needs to keep on practicing all the time
(C) That to be brave, one needs to face his fear in times of danger
(D) That to be brave, one needs to know how to use the spear effectively
(E) That to be brave, one needs to look for danger all the time
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following is false in the context of the story ?
(A) Manute was grateful to Pontoma for saving him from the clutches of the tiger
(B) Manute did manage to inflict a few deep wounds on the tiger
(C) Pontoma came out unscathed from the fight with the tiger
(D) In the fight that ensued, the tiger had injured Manute
(E) Pontoma saved Manute's life
Ans : (C)

3. How did Manute’s old spear possibly come in Pontoma's possession ?
(A) Manute did not want the spear anymore as it was old and had given it to Pontoma
(B) Everyone had insisted that Pontoma keep the spear as he had faced the tiger bravely
(C) Pontoma and Manute were best of friends and shared all their things
(D) Pontoma had used the spear to attack the tiger and it remained with him
(E) Pontoma had liked the spear and had asked Manute to lend it to him
Ans : (D)

4. 'or the fact that they were leaving a tiger skin there in the forest.' What event in the story does this line signify ?
(A) The bravery of Manute
(B) The start of the enmity between Manute and Pontoma
(C) The death of the tiger
(D) The loss incurred by Manute and Pontoma
(E) The littering in the forest
Ans : (C)

5. What did Manute and Pontoma do when it started raining ?
(A) They got wet and ran towards their respective homes
(B) They decided to share stories of bravery with each other
(C) They decided to attack a tiger in the forest to pass their time
(D) They took shelter in dense foliage till the rain stopped
(E) They looked at coral snakes till the rain stopped
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to Pontoma from the story ?
(1) Humble
(2) Courageous
(3) Talkative
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (3)
(E) Only (1) and (2)
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following can be the most 'appropriate title for the passage/story ?
(A) The Life In A Jungle
(B) The Friendship Between Manute and Pontoma
(C) Manute's Antics
(D) The Silent Brave Man
(E) The Tiger and Manute
Ans : (D)

8. 'You could see for yourself, at any time of the day, just how brave he was. He would jump to the ground from amazing heights, he would fight poisonous snakes, 'he would catch scorpions with his bare hands, and could cut the palm of his own hand with a knife-without even a flinch.' What aspect of Manute's personality does this sentence portray ?
(A) Boastfulness
(B) Helpfulness
(C) Laziness
(D) Cheerfulness
(E) Peacefulness
Ans : (A)

9. 'He wanted to get out of that tight hole, and confront the tiger in open space, where he could fully use his great hunting skills.' How can this sentence be best reframed without changing its meaning ?
(A) Being stuck in a hiding place, he wanted the tiger to tackle him as he was good at hunting
(B) Tackling the tiger, he wanted to hone his hunting skills by coming out of his hiding place
(C) Being stuck in a hiding place, he wanted to tackle the tiger for his hunting skills
(D) The tiger possessing good hunting skills, wanted him to come out of his hiding place and tackle him
(E) Being good at hunting, he wanted to tackle the tiger by coming out of his hiding place
Ans : (E)

10. Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to Manute from the story ?
(1) Energetic
(2) Evil
(3) Coward
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. TAKE ON
(A) Ride
(B) Fight
(C) Convince
(D) Buy
(E) Lift
Ans : (B)

12. LIFELESS
(A) Dead
(B) Tired
(C) Unconscious
(D) Weak
(E) Alive
Ans : (A)

13. STAYED
(A) Resided
(B) Remained
(C) Continued
(D) Lived
(E) Slept
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 14-15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. CALMNESS
(A) Tranquility
(B) Arrogance
(C) Turbulence
(D) Expertise
(E) Anxiety
Ans : (C)

15. DENSE
(A) Sparse
(B) Dark
(C) Thick
(D) Bright
(E) Flimsy
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 16–20) In each of the following questions, a sentence/s contain/s a blank space. You have to choose from the options (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and fill in the blank in such a manner that it completes the sentence/s in the most meaningful and grammatically appropriate manner .

16. The Manager realized that the clerk had forgotren to do his job and thus…………… for the loss to the Company.
(A) knew' about
(B) created
(C) hold guilty
(D) was responsible
(E) makes up
Ans : (D)

17. His vision is very poor but he refuses to do anything about it; ……………before he loses his eye sight completely.
(A) It is swiftly
(B) It won't be long
(C) Not soon
(D) He will very quickly
(E) It is time
Ans : (B)

18. ……………having worked really hard in office, Vilas did not get the much expected promotion.
(A) Inspite of
(B) On
(C) Since
(D) Despite of
(E) Besides
Ans : (A)

19. Tonight's game was ……………because of the rain.
(A) struck of
(B) called off
(C) winning (D) played
(E) cancelled
Ans : (B)

20. Riya did not care about me at all, I knew this as she had not even……………when I told her that I had failed in the exams.
(A) console me
(B) outspoken
(C) seen me
(D) closed her eyes
(E) batted an eyelid
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 21–25) In each of the following questions a short story is given with one of the lines in the story missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given to make the story complete and coherent.

21. An elderly carpenter told his employer-contractor of his plans to retire from the house-building business to live a more leisurely life with his wife and enjoy his extended family. The contractor was sorry to see his good worker go and asked if he could build just one more house as a personal favour. The carpenter said yes, but overtime it was easy to see that. his heart was not. in his work. He resorted to shoddy workmanship and used inferior materials. When the carpenter finished his work, his employer came to inspect the house and said, …………… 'The carpenter was shocked ! What a shame! If he had only known he was building his own house, he would have done it all so differently.
(A) , 'This house is going to collapse in no time .
(B) "You have done a remarkable job.
(C) , 'This is your house; my gift to you.
(D) "What a bad job you have done !
(E) "I wanted to gift this house to my relative.
Ans : (C)

22. Once a boy who wanted to buy a puppy went to a store, , 'Mister ," he said to the owner, "1 want to buy one of your puppies." The owner called all the puppies outside with a whistle. Out from the doghouse and to the fence ran four little balls of fur. Slowly another little ball appeared; this one noticeably smaller. Then in a somewhat awkward manner the little pup began hobbling toward the others, doing its best to catch up. ………………," the little boy said, pointing to the runt. The owner knelt down at the boy's side and said, "Son, you don't want that puppy. He will never be able to run and play with you like these other dogs would." With that the little boy reached down, rolled up one leg of his trousers and revealed a steel brace running down both sides of his leg attaching itself to a specially made shoe. Looking back up at the owner, he said, "You see sir, I don't run too well myself, and he will need someone who understands."
(A) "I want that one
(B) "What is that ?
(C) "That pup is so ugly
(D) "Is that puppy injured ?
(E) "I like the pups which came earlier
Ans : (A)

23. A selfish fox once invited a stork to dinner at his home in a hollow tree. On arrival at the fox's home, the stork was served soup in a shallow bowl. The fox licked up all his soup very quickly. However, the stork could not have any of it as the bowl was too shallow for her long beak. The poor stork just smiled politely and stayed hungry .The stork then invited the fox over to his home for dinner. The next day, when the fox arrived at the stork's home, he saw that they were also having soup for dinner. This time the soup was served in tall jugs……………….. This time it was his turn to go hungry.
(A) The stork drank the soup easily but the fox could not reach inside the tall jug
(B) The fox overturned the tall jug and had his share of the soup
(C) The stork politely poured all of the fox' s soup into another shallow bowl for the fox to drink
(D) The fox could easily reach into the tall jug
(E) The fox felt guilty about the way he had treated the stork
Ans : (A)

24. A man punished his three year old daughter for washing a roll of gold wrapping paper. Money was tight and he became infuriated when the child tried to decorate a box to put under the Christmas tree. Nevertheless, the little girl brought the gift to her father the next morning and said. "This is for you, Daddy ;"
The man was embarrassed by his earlier over reaction ……………….He yelled at her, stating, "Don't you know, when you give someone a present, there is supposed to be something inside ?" The little girl looked up at him with tears in her eyes and cried, , 'Oh, Daddy, it's not empty at all. I blew kisses into the box. They're all for you, Daddy.' The father was crushed. He put his arms around his little girl, and he begged for her forgiveness.
(A) But was too egoistic to actually apologize to his little girl
(B) And opened the box to find a very lovely gift inside
(C) And wanted to make it unto her by praising the gift he had received
(D) And decided to apologize to, her
(E) But his anger flared again when he found out the box was empty
Ans : (E)

25. One day long ago, some sailors set out to sea in their sailing ship. One of them brought his pet monkey along for the long journey…………….Everyone fell into the sea, and the monkey was sure that he would drown. Suddenly a dolphin appeared and picked him up. They soon reached the island and the monkey came down from the dolphin' s back. The monkey thanked the dolphin for saving his life.
(A) The monkey entertained everyone on the ship with his antics
(B) The ship was very sturdy and could withstand strong gusts of wind
(C) When they were far out at sea, a terrible storm overturned their ship
(D) The ship reached the island
(E) The monkey rocked the ship and overturned it
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The man replied "I neither have a computer nor an e-mail address."
(2) The HR manager interviewed him and then tested him on how well he could clean the floor .
(3) The man thus returned home disappointed .
(4) On completion of the test, he said, "You are hired, give me your e-mail address, and I'll send you the application to fill, as well as let you will start."
(5) A jobless man applied for the position of 'office boy' at a very big firm.
(6) "I'm sorry," said the HR manager, "if you do not have an e-mail address that means you do not exist and who does not exist, cannot have the job."

26. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

29. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions– (Q.31–35) In each of the following sentences there are five parts (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Rearrange these parts to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence and choose the alternative which represents that arrangement.
31. (1) they had to
(2) were of such
(3) be sent back
(4) the goods
(5) poor quality that
(A) 3,5,2,1,4
(B) 4,2,5,1,3
(C) 1,4,2,3,5
(D) 4,1,3,2,5
(E) 1,3,4,2,5
Ans : (B)

32. (1) budget is
(2) in earlier years
(3) than those
(4) this year's
(5) much better
(A) 2,1,5,3,4
(B) 1,5,4,3,2
(C) 4,1,5,3,2
(D) 5,3,2,4,1
(E) 3,2,4,1,5
Ans : (C)

33. (1) my shop
(2) there were
(3) front of
(4) standing in
(5) five people
(A) 2,5,4,3,1
(B) 4,2,1,5,3
(C) 2,1,5,3,4
(D) 5,2,4,3,1
(E) 1,5,2,4,3
Ans : (A)

34. (1) and meet
(2) too late
(3) him now
(4) it is
(5) to go
(A) 2,4,5,3,1
(B) 3,1,5,2,4
(C) 2,1,3,4,5
(D) 1,5,2,4,3
(E) 4,2,5,1,3
Ans : (E)

35. (1) she wants
(2) in a place
(3) where there is
(4) tolive
(5) no pollution
(A) 3,5,2,1,4
(B) 4,2,3,5,1
(C) 1,4,2,3,5
(D) 2,3,5,4,1
(E) 1,5,2,3,4
Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q, 36–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it, The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, The letter of that part is the answer, If there is no error, the answer is (E), (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any),

36. The man ran (A) / to a tree, climbed (B) / on to it and (C) / sit on branch. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

37. A young man was standing (A) / on the road proclaiming (B) / that he had the more (C) / beautiful car in the whole world. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. The girl sat down (A) / for dinner but refused to (B) / eat until (C) / her father came home. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. The only thing that (A) / the couple worried (B) / on was, where their (C) / happiness would last forever. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. One day, the King woke up (A) / earlier than usually (B) / to take a stroll (C) / around his palace. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Camilla was a very greedy, gluttonous little girl. She ...(41)... had any friends because she thought it was much more fun to spend her time alone, eating cake and pudding. Her parents were ...(42)...; so they took all the sweet food in the house and hid it.

So Camilla left the house, desperately ...(43)... for something sweet to eat. On she went, until she ended up in small abandoned hut full of old pots and glasses of all shapes and sizes. Out of all of them, the one that most ...(44)... Camilla's attention was a shiny little bottle made of good-coloured glass. It ...(45)... to be full of chocolate, and Camilla took a quick swig. It was delicious, but she felt a strange tickling sensation, so she read the label. "Glass Tears", it said, and in small print it explained : “Magically converts tears into chocolate.”

Wow, was Camilla excited! She ran everywhere looking for ...(46)... who was crying, and she came upon a little girl who was weeping disconsolately. Sure enough, her tears were converted into chocolate, and as they ran down her cheeks, to her mouth, they sweetened her lips. That soon ...(47)... her crying. Camilla and the girl spent a fun time together, tasting the delicious tears, and they parted as friends. Something similar ...(48)... with a woman who had dropped son1e plates, and with an old man who couldn't find his walking stick. The appearance of Camilla and the chocolate tears ...(49)... up those sad faces, helping them smile once again. Soon Camilla ...(50)... that, cheering people up was much more valuable even than chocolate. Her mad search for sweet food stopped, and her search became one for sad people who she could try to help. From those sweet encounters came a mountain of friends that filled her life with meaning and happiness.

41. (A) always
(B) didn't
(C) not
(D) hardly
(E) bare
Ans : (D)

42. (A) busy
(B) worried
(C) hungry
(D) feared
(E) happy
Ans : (B)

43. (A) looking
(B) cooking
(C) asking
(D) see
(E) cry
Ans : (A)

44. (A) saw
(B) glanced
(C) caught
(D) wanted
(E) call
Ans : (C)

45. (A) tried
(B) opened
(C) was
(D) seemed
(E) contained
Ans : (D)

46. (A) someone
(B) people
(C) body
(D) something
(E) any
Ans : (A)

47. (A) made
(B) gauged
(C) stopped
(D) cease
(E) wasted
Ans : (C)

48. (A) event
(B) incident
(C) occur
(D) placed
(E) happened
Ans : (E)

49. (A) closed
(B) broke
(C) light
(D) went
(E) cheered
Ans : (C)

50. (A) asked
(B) realised
(C) smiled
(D) understands
(E) expected
Ans : (B)

Andhra Bank Clerk Exam, 2011: English Language (Solved)

2011-10-26T22:16:00.000-07:00

Andhra Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 15-5-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions-(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In the city of Manmathapura, there lived a young man named Veeravara. He was brave and intelligent. He longed for adventure and when he was eighteen years old, he took up a job on a ship so that he could travel and see other countries. He traveled to many places on the ship and had many adventures. One day, a storm hit the sea, the ship tossed about and everyone was thrown overboard, including Veeravara. He managed to clutch on to a piece of wood and save his life. As he was floating in the sea, he lost consciousness. When at last he woke up, he found himself lying on the sandy shore of an unknown island, under the piercing rays of the sun.

Glad to be alive, he got up. He was on a large island, and some miles inland he could see a city. Veeravara started walking in that direction. When he reached the city, to his surprise, he was greeted by a great crowd that cheered him. He did not know what was happening. An elephant was brought forward and he was made to sit on his back. A sad looking man was also sitting there silently. The elephant marched towards a palatial building. Veeravara asked the old man, "Why do the people welcome a stranger like me in this grand fashion ? What are they celebrating, and where are they taking me ?"

The old man now looked sadder. "This is an unusual island," he explained. "The people here are very intelligent but they have some funny rules. They are prosperous but they don't have a king. They feel that if they choose a king from within themselves, he will be partial. So they wait for an unknown person to come to this island. When someone like you, a shipwrecked traveller, gets washed to the shore, they make him their king. They are taking us to the palace. You are our new king now ," "What happens to the previous king ? And who are you ?" Veeravara asked. "I was the king till you came along. The old king is given a day to teach the new one the ropes. Then he is sent off to the next deserted island, where he has to look after himself. That's the rule." Saying this, the old man pointed to an island. Veeravara could see it was covered with dense forest. Now he realised why the old man was sad.

Veeravara was crowned king with great pomp. He quickly learnt his new job and became a good and fair king. But deep inside, a little part of him remained unhappy. When would the next shipwrecked person show up and he be sent off to the other island to live till the end of his days with wild animals and other retired kings ?

As he thought about this, he came up with an idea. As long as he was the king, he had absolute power. He ordered his men to go to the island and clear a part of the forest. Then he ordered roads and houses to be built. Soon there were roads, shops and pretty little houses on the island. People would go to the forest and see the wild animals; they gathered honey and fruits from the trees there, and in a few years, the island was no longer deserted but a cheerful little town.

Now Veeravara was not worried at all. When the next king appeared, he would not have to fend for himself in the forest. Instead, he would live in a little cottage and grow vegetables. Years passed and he got older. The people loved him and were sad whenever they thought he would no longer be their king. Then one day Veeravara called his people and said, "It is good when you make a person from outside the island a king. He is fresh and unbiased. But this may not always be a good idea. What if the next person who comes here is a crook ? You will make him king without knowing anything about him. Instead, let's have a system where the cleverest people of this island are chosen and rule the place together. Then no one person will have absolute power, and if one of them turns out dishonest, you can always remove him from the council." The islanders liked the idea, and in a few days, chose their new rulers. Veeravara handed over the kingdom to them and retired happily to his cottage, where he stayed till the end of his days.

1. Why did Veeravara take up a job on the ship ?
(A) He enjoyed the sea
(B) It was the only job available
(C) He wanted to visit an island
(D) Jobs on the ship paid well and Veeravara needed the money
(E) Life on the ship was filled with adventure
Ans : (E)

2. How did Veeravara land on an unknown island ?
(I) He swam across to the nearest island after the shipwreck.
(2) The ship lost its way and docked on the island.
(3) He was unconscious while he floated across to the island.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Why did the crowd cheer when they saw Veeravara approaching them ?
(A) They were happy he was saved
(B) They were expecting his visit
(C) They were going to make him their king
(D) They were happy Veeravara accepted their invitation to visit their island
(E) They wanted their present king to retire as soon as possible
Ans : (C)

4. Why was the old man who was accompanying Veeravara sad ?
(I) He was going to be sent off to a deserted island.
(2) He had no sons who were adventurous like Veeravara.
(3) He had no heir who could take over the kingdom after him.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (A)

5. What was the rule put forth by the people of the island ?
(A) Every stranger would get a warm welcome
(B) No one was allowed to clear the forest area
(C) The retired king would be sent off to a deserted island to look after himself
(D) The island would be ruled by a council of rulers
(E) The king had absolute power and could do as he wished
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following statements about Veeravara is false in the context of the passage ?
(A) He was responsible for bringing about a change in the island
(B) He cleared the dense forest and built roads and cottages for his people
(C) He wanted to have a comfortable retirement
(D) He introduced the concept of a council
(E) He was envious of the previous king
Ans : (E)

7. Why did the villagers wait for an unknown person to arrive to their island in order to make him their king ?
(A) They wanted their king to be someone who was not from among them
(B) They did not have any young boys who were capable of carrying out the duties of a king
(C) The people of the village were not educated
(D) They found it easier to disrespect unknown people
(E) Nobody in the island was willing to take up the responsibility of governance
Ans : (A)

8. Although Veeravara was a successful king, there was an element of unhappiness because–
(A) He knew that he would not be able to stay on the island as he would have to return home one day
(B) He always felt that he was a foreigner on the island
(C) He felt responsible for the dethronement of the previous king
(D) He was not sure when he would be sent off to the deserted island
(E) He lost his companions after the shipwreck
Ans : (D)

9. What advise did Veeravara give to the people of his kingdom ?
(A) To choose a king fro within the island
(B) To send all the retired kings to the farthest deserted island
(C) To have a system where a council of rulers could rule the island
(D) To place complete trust in their king
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions-(Q. 10-12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Piercing
(A) Intense
(B) Loud
(C) Vibrant
(D) Violent
(E) Full
Ans : (A)

11. Deserted
(A) Secured
(B) Inhabited
(C) Isolated
(D) Protected
(E) Safe
Ans : (C)

12. Dense
(A) Dark
(B) Thick
(C) Tall
(D) Natural
(E) Lively
Ans : (B)

Directions-(Q. 13-15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Fair
(A) Unjust
(B) Unlucky
(C) Honest
(D) Sensible
(E) Dark
Ans : (A)

14. Remove
(A) Indulge
(B) Adjust
(C) Derive
(D) Include
(E) Eliminate
Ans : (D)

15. Partial
(A) Complete
(B) Unbiased
(C) Favourable
(D) Unfamiliar
(E) Prejudiced
Ans : (B)

Directions-(Q. 16-25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

16. I cannot able to teach you (A) / how to learn the guitar (B) / if you do not (C) / show any interest in music. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

17. The researcher could not (A) / speak the local language (B) / of the state and so, (C) / found it difficult to study on the people. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. Since it was (A) / a very cold and windy day (B) / I asked my friend (C) / to off the fan. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

19. Not only do (A) / the nurses want a pay increase, (B) / but they want reduce (C) / working hours as well. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

20. You cannnot expect the students (A) / to blame on the teacher (B) / for getting low marks (C) / in the examination. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

21. I live very (A) / close by to the train station, (B) / so travelling to work (C) / is very convenient for me. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

22. There is appearing (A) / to be a shortage (B) / of skilled staff (C) / in the organisation. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

23. The patient lodged (A) / a complaint against (B) / the doctor for / its negligence. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. My colleague informed (A) / to her boss that (B) / she needed more time (C) / to complete the assignment. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

25. At first, (A) / I would like to (B) / thank you all (C) / for inviting me here today. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions-(Q. 26-30) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete in the context of the sentence.

26. In her first book, the author ………….her experiences as a child.
(A) describes
(B) talks
(C) feels
(D) understands
(E) claims
Ans : (A)

27. Mr. Nair has been awake ………….6 O'clock.
(A) until
(B) since
(C) by
(D) at
(E) before
Ans : (B)

28. Frequent news of terrorist activity in the area has ………….most tourists away.
(A) caused
(B) worried
(C) frightened
(D) moved
(E) scare
Ans : (C)

29. On a Saturday, neither the bank ………….the post office is open.
(A) nor
(B) and
(C) also
(D) neither
(E) or
Ans : (A)

30. My youngest child, ………….is only three years old, has started going to kindergarten.
(A) that
(B) whom
(C) just
(D) which
(E) who
Ans : (E)

Directions-(Q. 31-35) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ' All Correct' as your answer .

31. The actress' Participation (A) in the play (B) came as a surprise (C) to all her fans. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Children (A) have a natural (B) curiosity (C) about the world around (D) them. All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

33. The poet's writings (A) reflect on the little abcences (B) and distractions (C) of mankind. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

34. After more (A) than a day's journey (B) we finally arrived (C) at our destination. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

35. My friends chose (A) to stay home rather (B) than play with colours, (C) during the festivhal (D) of Holi. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions-(Q. 36-40) Rearrange the following seven sentences / group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them–

(1) One day a zamindar decided to test his capacity and invited him to lunch.
(2) Just then a servant was passing by with a plate of mango slices, Gopal took the plate from the servant and ate all the slices.
(3) "The mango being the king of fruits, all the food in my stomach made way for it."
(4) Gopal had a large appetite and was known to eat enormous quantities of food especially when invited to feasts.
(5) "Very simple", said Gopal. "What happens when you walk into a crowded room ? Every-body steps aside to let a royal person like you pass. Something similar happened here."
(6) Gopal ate to his hearts content and declared that there was no more place left for even a grain of rice.
(7) "You said you did not have place for even a single grain of rice yet you devoured almost three mangoes. How do you explain that ?" asked the zamindar.

36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 7
Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 7
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 7
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 7
Ans : (A)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A farmer was ...(41)... home from his fields one evening when suddenly two women ...(42)... in front of him. "1 am the goddess of poverty ," said one of them. " And I .am the goddess of wealth," said the other. "What do you want from me ?" (43)... the man, his voice faint ...(44)... fear.

"Tell us who ...(45)... the two of us is more beautiful," said the goddess of wealth, giving him an enchanting smile. The man ...(46)... he was in a dangerous position. If he favoured one, it would displease the other. But he was a clever man and ...(47)... fast he said to the goddess of wealth: "When you are ...(48)... a house, you are certainly more beautiful. "Then turning quickly to the other deity said: "But there is ...(49)... one to compare you with, when you are leaving a house. In circumstances like these, it is you who are more beautiful." The deities beamed with joy and disappeared, and the fanner heaved a ...(50)... of relief and hurried home.

41. (A) returning
(B) exiting
(C) travel
(D) joining
(E) went
Ans : (A)

42. (A) comes
(B) standing
(C) appeared
(D) reaching
(E) seemed
Ans : (C)

43. (A) replied
(B) order
(C) question
(D) asked
(E) request
Ans : (A)

44. (A) by
(B) with
(C) inside
(D) under
(E) within
Ans : (B)

45. (A) of
(B) between
(C) which
(D) inspite
(E) including
Ans : (B)

46. (A) observe
(B) thinks
(C) finds
(D) knew
(E) feel
Ans : (D)

47. (A) pretending
(B) telling
(C) seeing
(D) seeking
(E) thinking
Ans : (E)

48. (A) coming
(B) going
(C) entering
(D) into
(E) looking
Ans : (C)

49. (A) neither
(B) few
(C) many
(D) some
(E) no
Ans : (E)

50. (A) burden
(B) shower
(C) act
(D) posture
(E) sigh
Ans : (E)

Wainaganga Krishna Gramin Bank Solved Paper

2011-10-26T20:50:00.000-07:00

Wainganga Krishna Gramin Bank Officers (Scale-I) Exam., 2011
(Held on 8-5-2011)
General English : Solved Paper

Directions-(Q. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an education system that seeks to enable social transformation. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four critical elements together the activity of the faculty continues to be cast aside, by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional practices of the faculty.

Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recognized the potential power of the .faculty. In multiple experiments, they have used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of faculties dedicated to their particular causes. In many instances this has led to extreme politicization of the college faculty. In others it has led to the education of a generation of students in half –truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of faculties who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.

Over the last decade or so, educational reform has included, apart from access, a focus on developing alternative text materials and the training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate. Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance scholars argued that, "...the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of education that students of under-privileged and marginalized group's experience". Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of a national identity.

The subsequent change of national government in 2004, led to the curriculum review in 2005 underlining a new political interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilization and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as "dispensers of information" and students as "passive recipients" of an "education", sought1obe "delivered" in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding.

1. Prior to 1990 what was NOT the agenda of the educational reforms?
(1) An appropriate curriculum
(2) Well managed admission process
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Either (1) or (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following best describes the phrase "passive recipients" as used in the passage ?
(A) The users of the educational system
(B) The political ideology of right and left parties
(C) Well framed curriculum guiding the teaching/learning process
(D) Free access to education system
(E) The faculty
Ans : (A)

3. To facilitate social transformation, which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors ?
(A) A committed political ideology'
(B) Support of the well framed curriculum
(C) A strong administration system
(D) Carefully planned education delivery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. What hampers the critical thinking ability of college going students?
(A) The emphasis on rote memorization and recalling the facts of education based on real experience
(B) Lack of political will to develop these abilities
(C) Absence of focus while designing curriculum framework
(D) Ignoring the active role of faculty and the student
(E) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word underpinned as used in the passsage ?
(A) advocated
(B) supported
(C) prepared
(D) bolstered
(E) boosted
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following best describes the word ossification as used in the passage?
(A) hardening
(B) plasticity
(C) imbibition
(D) incorporation
(E) coalescing
Ans : (A)

7. Development of text books generated public debate on many issues except…
(1) making the curriculum students centered.
(2) using teaching community as an agency to bring change.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Either (1) or (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. How did personal beliefs and folk pedagogy enter into educational system ?
(A) The college acted as an agent of local communities
(B) The faculties were not properly trained
(C) College faculties started acting as passive listeners
(D) The loopholes in the educational system allowed it to happen
(E) It was by design
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the word medley as used in the passage ?
(A) amalgamate
(B) united
(C) unity
(D) diffuse
(E) focusing
Ans : (D)

10. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in–
(A) early eighties
(B) late nineties
(C) 21st century
(D) evolving curriculum framework
(E) training faculty
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-15) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

11. …………….to the popular belief that every astrologer nurtures blind faith in fate, our astrologer believes in………..
(A) Contrary , action
(B) According, thoughts
(C) Bowing, present
(D) Proving, forecasting
(E) Pointing, devotion
Ans : (A)

12. His………….has yielded him the…………….fruit.
(A) fate, undesirable
(B) efforts, unwanted
(C) action, viable
(D) perseverance, desired
(E) emphasis, expected
Ans : (D)

13. Liberalization has removed all the legal………….... and…………....flood-gates to multinational companies.
(A) hurdles, awarded
(B) barriers, opened
(C) obstacles, guarded
(D) manipulation, closed
(E) battles, threw
Ans : (B)

14. His …………....contribution to the Tsunami relief fund was …………....by his staff members.
(A) meagre, admired
(B) spontaneous, nullified
(C) negligible, sanctioned
(D) noteworthy, improved
(E) generous, appreciated
Ans : (E)

15. The …………....on some of the towns has created …………....among the residents of the other part of the country.
(A) attack, ambition
(B) raid, awareness
(C) bombardment, panic
(D) spell, satisfaction
(E) shower, dampness
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 16-20) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ' All correct' as your answer .

16; The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry's manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

17. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

18. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

20. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting anew venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 21-30) Which of the phrases (A).. (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., 'No correction required' as the answer .

21. His behavior with all his employees is so pleasing that everyone come forward for helping him.
(A) came towards him for help
(B) comes towards him for help
(C) comes forward to help him
(D) comes forward for help him
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

22. The police commissioner burst into rage and ordered immediately suspension of the inspector who had arrested the innocent boy.
(A) order immediately
(B) order immediate
(C) ordered immediate
(D) ordering immediate
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

23. She will not attend the meeting until she is asked to.
(A) except
(B) even with
(C) even except
(D) unless
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

24. He would be like to have some ice-cream.
(A) would like to
(B) would be liked to
(C) was to be liking to
(D) would being liked to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

25. A master should never impose his servants too much work.
(A) his servants with too much work
(B) too much work with his servants
(C) too much work on his -servants
(D) too much work for his servants
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

26. Good life, according to many people, is to making more and more money.
(A) is making
(B) is made
(C) are made
(D) are making
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. Lift the handset only after paid a one rupee coin.
(A) paying a one rupee coin
(B) you pay one rupee coin
(C) pay one rupee-coin
(D) you paid one rupee coin
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. What matter does most is the quality and not the quantity.
(A) What does matter
(B) What does it matter
(C) That matters
(D) What matters
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

29. Not knowing the language and had no friends in the country, he found it impossible to get a job.
(A) has no
(B) with having
(C) with having not
(D) having no
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. With the introduction of new system, the number of candidates who resort to unfair means is decreasing year after year.
(A) resorting to
(B) to resort to
(C) resorted to
(D) to resorting
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions-(Q. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

31. Our country can contribute (A) / to the mitigation of global warming (B) / by protecting forests (C) / and starting at afforestation programme. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. The task for ensuring employment (A) / for the labour force has been (B) / a persistent concern throughout (C) / India's post independence development. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Psychologists have been documenting (A) / the emotional and physical (B) / effect of (C) / negative political advertisements. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. India's efforts that are (A) / aimed at controlling (B) / infectious diseases is likely (C) / to show only partial success. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. The magazine industry (A) / in India (B) / has been going from (C) / confusing times. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

36. The fast pace of progress on (A) / basic education and literacy (B) / is consistent with an increase (C) / in demand for education. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

37. Technology is (A) / transforming the way (B) / films are screen (C) / in the theatres. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. One needs to set goals (A) / at differing stages (B) / of one's career and (C) / monitor achievements and accomplishments. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

39. Non-communicable diseases (A) / often require (B) / long term and expensive interventions which (C) / poor people cannot afford. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. A leader is a group member which (A) / exerts profound influence (B) / on the behaviour and attitudes (C) / of other members of the group. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The growth story in any developing country cannot be ...(41)... without ...(42)... its impact on the poverty and employment situation. The Planning Commission has ...(43)... that India should strive for 'more inclusive growth' .The number of people living below the poverty line has ...(44)... from 36 per cent in 1993-94 to 22.0 per cent in 2004-05. Again, the issue is to bring more and more people out of poverty by ...(45)... them the productive employment opportunities. The Approach Paper to 11th Five Year Plan suggests that doubling the growth of agricultural GDP to 4 per cent per annum will ...(46)... rural employment conditions, by raising real wages and reducing under employment. However, even if this is attained, an overall growth of 9 per cent will further increase income ...(47)... between agricultural and non-agricultural households, ...(48)... around 10 million workers currently in agriculture find remunerative non-agricultural employment.. This ...(49)... a major challenge not only in terms of generating non-agricultural employment but also in ...(50)... its required location and type.

41. (A) complete
(B) retold
(C) achieved
(D) constructed
(E) narrated
Ans : (A)

42. (A) generating
(B) assessing
(C) realizing
(D) counting
(E) finding
Ans : (B)

43. (A) desired
(B) estimated
(C) focused
(D) verified
(E) stressed
Ans : (C)

44. (A) uplifted
(B) degraded
(C) vanished
(D) decreased
(E) enhanced
Ans : (D)

45. (A) absolving
(B) providing
(C) nurturing
(D) ignoring
(E) refusing
Ans : (B)

46. (A) impact
(B) diversify
(C) lay
(D) aggravate
(E) improve
Ans : (E)

47. (A) opportunity
(B) assessment
(C) disparity
(D) parity
(E) tax
Ans : (C)

48. (A) unless
(B) for
(C) in spite of
(D) despite
(E) by
Ans : (A)

49. (A) addresses
(B) meets
(C) poses
(D) recognizes
(E) solves
Ans : (C)

50. (A) exploring
(B) acquiting
(C) reciprocating
(D) matching
(E) solving
Ans : (D)

Free Diwali Wallpapers

2011-10-23T00:27:00.000-07:00

Amazing Collection of Free Desktop Diwali wallpapers

Amazing collection of free desktop Diwali wallpapers, Diwali wallpapers to download in all sizes. Free deepavali backgrounds for diwali desktop themes with wallpapers.

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Chhattisgarh Teacher Eligibility Test 2011 (CGTET)

2011-10-13T20:41:00.000-07:00

Chhattisgarh Teacher Eligibility Test 2011

Guidelines

Section –A
1. Background:
In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII. One of the essential qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the schools is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET). Based on this, the state will conduct Chhattisgarh Teacher Eligibility Test.

2. Provisions for Teacher Eligibility Test:
i.This exam will be treated as one of the criteria for the appointment as a teacher. It should not be considered as the appointment order for the post of teachers.
ii. This will be compulsory criteria for recruitment of teachers in all those schools which are mentioned in clause 2 (n) of Right to Education Act, 2009.
iii. Separate exams need to be given for Primary and Upper primary
iv. Minimum 60% marks is required to qualify the exam.
v. As per the prevalent State Govt. service examination rules, reserved category candidates belonging to the Schedule Tribe, Schedule Caste, Other Backward Caste will get a relaxation of 10% and will require minimum 50% marks to qualify the exam.
vi. The marks obtained in this exam may be used as weight age while recruitment of teachers. Decision regarding the weight age will be taken by the recruiting authority.
vii. Once qualified by the candidate in this exam, the validity will be maximum for seven years.
viii. Candidate once qualified in the exam may again appear in the same to improve the marks.
ix. Candidates who obtain minimum required marks for eligibility, will be awarded a TET Certificate which has to be produced while recruitment. All other candidates will be given the mark list only.

3. Eligibility for appearing in Teacher Eligibility Test:
(1) Candidates have to appear in two different exams for becoming eligible for teaching in primary and upper primary level. Minimum qualification for these exams is as follows:
(i) For teaching in classes one to five
(a) Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and a 2 year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known)
Or
Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 45 % marks and a 2 year Diploma in Elementary Education(by whatever name known), in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition norms and procedure), Regulation 2002
Or
Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50 % marks and a 4 year Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.)
Or
Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50 % marks and 2 year Diploma in Education (Special Education)
Or
Graduation and two year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known)
Or
And
(b) Pass in Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose
(II) For teaching in classes six to eight
(a) Graduation and 2 year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known)
Or
Graduation with at least 50% marks and one year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed.)
Or
Graduation with at least 45% marks and one year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed.) in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition norms and procedure), Regulations issued from time to time in this regard
Or
Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50 % marks and a 4 year Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.)
Or
Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50 % marks and 4 year B.A./B.Sc.Ed. or B.A. Ed./ B.Sc. Ed.
Or
Graduation with at least 50% marks and 1 year B.Ed. (Special Education)
Or
With D.Ed. (Special Education) or B.Ed. (Special Education) qualification shall undergo, after appointment an NCTE recognized 6 month Special Program in Elementary Education.
And
(b) Pass in Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), to be conducted by the appropriate Government in accordance with Guidelines framed by the NCTE for the purpose
(2) Diploma/degree recognized by National Council for Teacher Education will be considered for this exam. For the Diploma in Education (Special Education) and B.Ed. (Special Education), curriculum recognized by Rehabilitation Council of India will only be considered.
(3) With Graduation with at least 50% marks and B.Ed. qualification or with at least 45% marks and 1 year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed.), in accordancwe with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations issued from time to time in this regard shall also be eligible for appointment to class 1 to 5 upto 1st January, 2012, provided he/she undergoes, after appointment, an NCTE recognized 6 month Special Program in Elementary Education.
(4) With D.Ed. (Special Education) or B.Ed. (Special Education) qualification shall undergo, after appointment an NCTE recognized 6 month Special Program in Elementary Education.
(5) Those who are registered in the teacher education course and in the process of completing the course recognized as per the notification by N.C.T.E. or R.C.I.
(6) As per the notification issued by GoI, Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy, New Delhi dated 26th August, 2011, minimum professional qualifications for teacher recruitment is relaxed with certain conditions under the clause 23-2 Right to Children to Free & Compulsory Education Act, 2009. As per this notification, those who posses the required educational qualification as mentioned above and pass the Teacher Eligibility Test, have to gain the required professional qualification (D.Ed./B.Ed.) within two years from the year of recruitment as a teacher. GoI has given this one time relaxation till 31st March, 2014.
(7) Reservation policy: Relaxation up to 5% in the qualifying marks shall be allowed to the candidates belonging to reserved categories, such as SC/ST/OBC/PH.
(8) The minimum qualification norms referred to in this Notification apply to teachers of Languages, Social Studies, Mathematics, Science etc. In respect of teachers for physical education, the minimum qualification norms laid down for Physical Education teachers shall be applicable. For teachers of Art Education, Craft Education, Home Science, Work Education etc., the State Govt and rules decided by other management will be applicable till the NCTE decides the minimum qualifications for the same.

Section –B
i. Questions asked in TET will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), with four alternatives for each question.
ii. Each paper will be of one and a half hour duration and total 150 questions will be asked. Each question will be of one mark. There will be no negative marking on wrong answers.
iii. There will be two papers of the Teacher Eligibility Test. Candidates qualifying the first paper will be eligible for teaching in classes one to five. In the same way, candidates appearing and qualifying the second paper will be eligible to teach in classes 6 to 8th.
iv. Candidates having required qualifications for both the papers can appear in both the papers.
v. All the questions will be asked in two languages (Hindi and English).
vi. First language will be decided by the State Govt. (Hindi/English) and the second language will be General English/ General Hindi.
vii. Subjects and marks for both the papers are as follows:

First Paper (For eligibility to teach in classes one to five) All papers compulsory
1. Child development and Pedagogy -30 MCQ–30 marks
2. Language -1 : 30 MCQ–30 marks
3. Language -2 : 30 MCQ–30 marks
4. Math : 30 MCQ–30 marks
5. Environmental Education : 30 MCQ–30 marks
Total -150 MCQ–150 marks

Second Paper (For eligibility to teach in classes six to eight)
6. Child development and Pedagogy (Compulsory) : 30 MCQ–30 marks
7. Language -1 (Compulsory) : 30 MCQ–30 marks
8. Language -2 (Compulsory) : 30 MCQ–30 marks
9. Subject-based Exam (Any one from below)
9.1 Science and math teachers : 60 MCQ–60 marks
4.2 Social Science teachers : 60 MCQ–60 marks
4.3 Any other subject teachers : Any one from 4.1 or 4.2–60 marks
Total- 150 MCQ–150 marks

Allahabad Bank P.O. Exam, 2011 : General Awareness Fully Solved

2011-09-19T19:21:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011
(Held on 17-4-2011)
General Awareness : Solved paper

1. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of Free Trade Agreement, India has done with many countries ?
1. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sector.
2. For undertaking expansion of business.
3. To support technology up-gradation.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organisations issue the rules of global trade ?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
(D) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and/or business enterprise at a given point of time is called—
(A) Statement of product details
(B) Reconciliation Statement
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
(E) Trading and manufacturing account
Ans : (C)

4. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Reverse Repo Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) CRR
(E) Savings Rate
Ans : (B)

5. The Reverse mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Govt. employees
(B) Senior Citizens
(C) Unemployed youth
(D) War widows
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world ?
(A) Maximum
(B) Medium
(C) Mercantile
(D) Mutual
(E) Ministry
Ans : (B)

7. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts is passed to prevent this activity ?
(A) Payment & Settlements Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) Prevention of Money laundering Act
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following organizations provides guarantee to the exporters ?
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Director General Foreign Trade
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Registrar of companies
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Credit
(B) Rate
(C) Financial Status
(D) Discount
(E) Absolute zero
Ans : (E)

10. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sectors ?
(A) Internal Rate of Return
(B) Internal Revaluation Reserve
(C) Investment Reserve Ratio
(D) Internal Risk Return
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) ARCIL
(C) SEBI
(D) RBI
(E) CCIL
Ans : (A)

12. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking ?
1.Meet deposit withdrawal
2.Fund loan demands
3.Maintain public confidence
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

13. According to latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide largest share to Indian economy in the days to come?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Exports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following group represents key industries ?
1. Crude oil, electricity
2. Petroleum refining and finished steel
3. Cement and coal
(A) Only group 1
(B) Only group 2
(C) Only groups 1 and 2
(D) Only group 3
(E) All groups 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes ?
1. Insurance/health services
2. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
3. Money changers/legal services
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Ministry Foreign Affairs
(C) Govt. of Maharashtra
(D) Border Secutiry Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks ?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Citigroup
(D) HSBC
(E) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)

18. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called—
(A) Product Control
(B) Product enhancement
(C) Product marketing
(D) Product enrichment
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Banking and financial services, all over the world, are regulated usually by Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) IRDA
(E) FEDAI
Ans : (C)

20. As per guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of 2000 by which year ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. Which one of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India ?
(A) 4•6 per cent of total budget
(B) 4•6 per cent of GDP
(C) 3•6 per cent of total budget
(D) 3•6 per cent of GDP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. FIMMDA stands for—
(A) Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
(B) Fixed Income Money Markets and Derivatives Association
(C) Fixed Income and Money Market Development Association
(D) Floating Income and Money Markets Derivative Assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. On which one of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt. of India ?
(A) Corporate Governance
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Inflation
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which one of the following countries ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Who is the author of the book ‘Darkness At Noon’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arthur Koestler
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. For which one of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India ?
(A) To provide better price to farmers
(B) To improve the productivity of food crops
(C) To control the prices of food items
(D) To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following terms is not used in banking ?
(A) Debit Card
(B) Credit Card
(C) Kisan Card
(D) ELISA Test
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is the reason, owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items ?
(A) It is to get benefit of high international prices
(B) To improve the tax collection targets
(C) It is as per international practices
(D) To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy ?
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity
3. Maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated ?
(A) Dance
(B) Music
(C) Short-story writing
(D) Novels
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman ?
(A) Deregulation of primary markets
(B) Deregulation of secondary markets
(C) Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
(D) Introduction of Base Rate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Who is Kapil Sibal ?
(A) Coal Minister of India
(B) Civil Aviation Minister of India
(C) Telecom Minister of India
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IBA
(C) RBI
(D) SBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (E)

35. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which one of the following countries ?
(A) Libya
(B) Beharin
(C) Yemen
(D) Tunisia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. What is Gross Domestic Product ?
(A) It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country
(B) It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year
(C) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country
(D) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Uranium
(D) Copper
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

38. In which one of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. In which one of the following States, Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining Project is proposed to be set ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Demand and Supply
(B) Ad Valoram Tax
(C) Break even
(D) HIV positive
(E) Cost benefit analysis
Ans : (D)

41. For which one of the following reasons Finance Minister denied entry of NRI funds for infra bonds ?
(A) It will bring in more liquidity in the country
(B) NRIs can withdraw their funds any time
(C) It will bring interest burden on the country
(D) It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian Currency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. What is ‘financial inclusion’ ?
1. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
2. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneurs
3. Availability of basic financial products like insurance
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

43. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be Vice-Chairman of joint commission to resolve differences amongst the financial regulators ?
(A) Finance Minsiter, GOI
(B) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
(C) SEBI Chairman
(D) Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
(E) RBI, Governor
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following terms is used in Economics ?
(A) Keynesian
(B) Adsorption
(C) Affinity Matrix
(D) Gene Flow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. Which one of the following is the directive given to the Govt. of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it ?
(A) Focus on financial consistency
(B) To reduce fiscal deficit
(C) To ensure GDP growth
(D) To reduce revenue deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. In which one of the following States, Jangi-Thopon and Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up ?
(A) J & K
(B) H. P.
(C) U. P.
(D) Manipur
(E) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law ?
(A) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(B) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(C) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(D) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates ?
1. Bank Rate/the Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. CRR/SLR
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) Both 1 and 3
Ans : (C)

49. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission ?
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 750
(D) 1000
(E) 1400
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following rates signal the RBI’s long term out-look on interest rates ?
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) SLR
(E) CRR
Ans : (C)

51. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services ?
(A) Eligible financial services rendered by banks
(B) Utility services provided by banks
(C) Services provided through business correspondents
(D) Services provided to armed force personnel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

52. For which one of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India ?
(A) The price of iron ore exports is not competitive
(B) The iron ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports
(C) The prices of iron ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned
(D) Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

53. What is a cross Border Exchange ?
(A) Trading of foreign currency in India
(B) Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/ goods
(C) Hawala transactions in Indian Rupee
(D) Unauthorized remittance of Indian Rupee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is Cartosat-2B ?
(A) It is an advanced remote sensing statellite built by ISRO
(B) It is a warhead developed by DRDO
(C) It is an educational project launched by UGC
(D) It is an advanced computer developed by IIT Kanpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

55. For which one of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews ?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
3. To provide guidance to the economy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council ?
(A) To address inter-regulatory issues only
(B) To focus on financial literacy only
(C) To focus on financial inclusion only
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A) , (B) and (C)
Ans : (C)

57. For which one of the following reasons has the Planning Com-mission decided to convert itself into a system Reforms Commission ?
(A) It is to make people to people contact
(B) It is to understand the problems of people
(C) It is to review the implementation of its policies
(D) It is aimed at changing economic profile of the country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

58. Which one of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10 ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Wholesale and Retail Trade
(D) Financial Insurance, Real Estate
(E) Civil Aviation
Ans : (B)

59. Which of the following is/are a renewable source of energy ?
1. Wind
2.Solar
3. Thermal
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (E)

60. Expand the term SWIFT—
(A) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Telecommunications
(B) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Financial Telecommunications
(C) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Transfers
(D) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Fiscal Transactions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

61. For which one of the following reasons. NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers ?
(A) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
(B) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
(C) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
(D) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Holding Company
(B) Post dated cheque
(C) Credit
(D) Time deposit
(E) Centripetal force
Ans : (E)

63. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat ?
(A) Up to lakhs
(B) Up to 10 lakhs
(C) Up to 20 lakhs
(D) Up to 50 lakhs
(E) No limit
Ans : (A)

64. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India ?
(A) Health Service
(B) Clean water
(C) Primary Education
(D) Employment for 100 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

65. Some private organizations are running e-choupals, to help which of the following section of society ?
(A) Farmers
(B) Small businessman
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) School-going children
(E) Unemployed youth
Ans : (A)

66. Which is the currency of U.A.E. ?
(A) Dirham
(B) Dinar
(C) Dollar
(D) Taka
(E) Pound Sterling
Ans : (A)

67. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A bend in the River’ ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following terms is used in game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Scoop
(C) LBW
(D) Tee
(E) Back-hand drive
Ans : (C)

69. Which one of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-10 ?
(A) 6•7
(B) 9•2
(C) 7•4
(D) 9•7
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

70. Which one of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Rumania
(D) Hungary
(E) France
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following schemes is launched for school children ?
(A) Rajlakshmi
(B) Kutir Jyoti
(C) Mid Day Meal
(D) Swajal Dhara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

72. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low income group people are known as—
(A) Investment Loans
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Savings Loan
(D) Secured Loans
(E) Cash Credit Loans
Ans : (B)

73. Which of the following is the Central Bank of U.S.A. ?
(A) Federation of Banks in U.S.A.
(B) Citigroup U.S.A.
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central Bank of U.S.A.
(E) Federal Reserve System
Ans : (E)

74. Which one of the following countries was second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009 ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Germany
(E) Russia
Ans : (B)

75. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called—
(A) On-line Trading
(B) Share Trading
(C) Real estate investment
(D) Corporate Trading
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

New Trains Proposed in Rail Budget 2011-12

2011-03-22T20:20:00.000-07:00

Duronto Express:
1. Chennai – Thiruvananthapuram AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
2. Mumbai – Allahabad AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
3. Chennai – Madurai AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
4. Mumbai Central – Delhi AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
5. Ahmedabad – Pune AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
6. Secunderabad-Visakhapatnam AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
7. Nizamuddin- Ajmer non-AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
8. Sealdah-Puri non-AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
9. Shalimar-Patna AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)

Double Decker AC Trains :
1. Mumbai – Ahemedabad AC Double Decker
2. Delhi – Jaipur AC Double Decker

Shatabdi Express Trains:
1. Jaipur – Agra Shatabdi Express
2. Pune – Secunderabad Shatabdi Express
3. Delhi – Ludhiana Shatabdi Express

Vivek Express Trains:
1. Bandra(Terminus)-Jammu Tawi – Vivek Express via Marwar-Degana-Ratangarh-Jakhal-Ludhiana. (Weekly)
2. Dibrugarh -Thiruvantharam-Kanyakumari – Vivek Express via Kokrajhar. (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Mangalore Vivek Express via Palghat. (Weekly)
4. Dwarka-Tuticorin Express via Wadi (Weekly)

Kavi Guru Express Trains:
1. Howrah-Azimganj Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
2. Guwahati-Jaipur Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Bolpur Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
4. Howrah – Porbandar Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)

Rajya Rani Express Trains:
1. Sawantwadi Road-Mumbai Express (Daily)
2. Saharsa-Patna Intercity Express (Daily)
3. Meerut-Lucknow Intercity Express (Daily)
4. Mysore-Bangalore Express (Daily)
5. Damoh-Bhopal Intercity Express (Daily)
6. Silghat-Dhubri Intercity Express (Tri-weekly via Guwahati-Kokrajhar-Jogighopa)
7. Bankura-Howrah Express (Tri-weekly)
8. Nilambur Road-Thiruvananthapuram Link Express (Daily)
9. Jharsuguda-Bhubaneswar Express (Tri-weekly)
10. Manmad-Mumbai Express (Daily) via Nasik

Janam Bhoomi Gaurav Trains:
1. Howrah-Bolpur-Rajgir (Nalanda)-Pataliputra (Patna)-Varanasi (Sarnath)-Gaya-Howrah
2. Bangalore-Mysore-Hassan (Space Facility, Belur, Halebid, Shravanbengola)-Hubli-Gadag(Hampi)-Bijapur (Gole Gumbaz)-Bangalore
3. Chennai-Puduchcheri-Tiruchichirappali-Madurai-Kanniyakumari-Thiruvananthpuram-Ernakulam-Chennai
4. Mumbai-Ahmedabad-(Lothal)-Bhavnagar (Palitana)-(Alang)-Gir-Diu (Somnath-Veraval)-(Junagarh)-Rajkot-Mumbai

Passenger Trains:
1. Delhi-Garhi Harsaru –Farukhnagar Passenger (Daily)
2. Kendujhargarh-Bhubaneswr Fast Passenger (5 days a week)
3. Koraput – Bolangir – Sambalpur Passenger (Daily)
4. Barkakhana-Dehri-on-Sone Passenger (Daily)
5. Jodhpur-Hissar Fast Passenger (Daily)
6. Tirupati – Guntakal Passenger (Daily)
7. Coimbatore-Mettupalayam Passenger (6 days a week)
8. Bhuj-Palanpur Passenger (Daily)
9. Silghat-Chaparmukh Passenger (Daily)
10. Siliguri-Dinhata Passenger (Daily)
11. Abohar-Fazilka Passenger (Daily)
12. Bilaspur-Katni Passenger (Daily)
13. Raipur-Korba Passenger (Daily)

Express Trains :
1. Raebareli-Jaunpur Express (Daily).
2. Tirupati-Amravati Express (Bi-weekly) via Akola, Nizamabad, Gooty, Dharmavara.
3. Asansol-Gorakhpur Express (Weekly) via Chhapra, Siwan.
4. Nagpur-Kolhapur Express (Bi-weekly) via Kurduwadi, Lathur road, Purna, Akola.
5. Malda Town-Digha Express (Weekly) via Rampurhat.
6. Pune-Nanded Express (Weekly) via Latur.
7. Visakhapatnam-Koraput Intercity Express (5 days a week) via Vizianagra.
8. Howrah-Secunderabad Express (Weekly) via Kharagpur
9. Hyderabad-Darbhanga Express (Weekly) via Muri-Jharsuguda-
10. Howrah-Tirupati Express (Weekly)
11. Narsapur-Nagarsol Express (Bi-weekly) via Secunderabad, Nizamabad
12. Puri-Shalimar Express (Weekly)
13. Ranchi-Pune Express (Bi-weekly) via Bilaspur
14. Mumbai-Chandigarh Express (Weekly) via Phulera-Ringus-Gurgaon-Kurukshetra
15. Bardhaman-Rampurhat Express (Tri-weekly)
16. Bikaner-Delhi Superfast Intercity (Daily) via Ratangarh
17. Shalimar-Udaipur Express (Weekly) via Katni, Kota
18. Chennai-Shirdi Express (Weekly) via Bangalore
19. Coimbatore-Tuticorin Link Express (Daily)
20. Howrah-Mysore Express (Weekly) via Gondia, Adilabad
21. Yesvantpur-Mysore Express (Daily)
22. Digha-Visakhapatnam Express (Weekly)
23. Mysore-Chennai Express (Weekly)
24. Ahmedabad-Yesvantpur AC Express (Weekly) via Hubli, Bijapur
25. Bhavnagar-Kochuvelli Express (Weekly) via Panvel, Madgaon
26. Gorakhpur-Yesvantpur Express (Weekly) via Faizabad, Kanpur, Bhopal ,Kacheguda
27. Bhuj-Dadar Express (Bi-weekly)
28. Kolkata-Ajmer Express (Weekly) via Asansol
29. Jabalpur-Indore Intercity Express (Tri-weekly) via Guna, Bina
30. Porbander-Kochuveli Express (Weekly) via Panvel, Madgaon
31. Kolkata-Agra Express (Weekly) via Kasganj, Mathura
32. Lucknow-Bhopal Express (Weekly)
33. Varanasi-Singrauli Intercity Express (Daily)
34. Nagpur-Bhusawal Express (Tri-weekly) via Itarsi-Khandwa
35. Puri-Gandhidham Express (Weekly) via Durg
36. Howarh-Visakhapatnam Express (Weekly)
37. Guwahati-Dimapur Express (Daily)
38. Howrah-Darbhanga Express (Weekly)
39. Vasco-Velankani Express (Weekly)
40. Bilaspur-Ernakulam Superfast (Weekly)
41. Digha-Puri Express (Weekly)
42. Jodhpur-Delhi Express (Bi-weekly) via Degana, Ratangarh
43. Kharagpur-Viluppuram Express (Weekly) via Vellore
44. Udaipur-Bandra (T) Express (Tri-weekly)via Ratlam
45. Purulia-Viluppuram Express (Weekly) via Midnapore, Kharagpur, Vellore
46. Asansol-Gonda Express (Weekly) via Chhapra, Mau, Shahganj, Ayodhya
47. Delhi-Puducherry Express (Weekly)
48. Asansol-Tatanagar Express (Tri-weekly) via Purulia
49. Indore-Kota Intercity Express (Daily) via Ruthiyai
50. Bhagalpur-Ajmer Express (Weekly)
51. Howrah-Jaisalmer Express (Weekly) via Rae Bareli, Ratangarh, Lalgarh
52. Ernakulam-Bangalore Express (Weekly)
53. Mangalore-Palghat Intercity Express (Daily)
54. Varanasi-Ahmedabad Express (Weekly) via Ajmer
55. Howrah-Nanded Express (Weekly)
56. Hardwar-Ramnagar Link Express (Tri-weekly)

Diesel-Electric Multiple Unit (DEMU) Trains Services:
1. Gondia-Ballarshah
2. Vasai road-Diva
3. Ratlam-Neemuch
4. Ratlam-Chittaurgarh
5. Sealdah-Jangipur
6. Ahmedabad-Patan
7. Bangalore Cantt-Bangarpet
8. Dharmapuri-Bangalore
9. Marikuppam-Bangarpet
10. New Jalpaiguri – Balurghat
11. Falaknuma-Medchhal
12. Mriyalguda-Nadikudi
13. Kacheguda-Raichur
14. Raichur-Gadwal
15. Radhikapur-New Jalpaiguri
16. Jalna-Nagarsol
17. Nizamabad-Secunderabad
18. Kacheguda-Mriyalguda
19. Baripada-Bangariposi
20. Sealdah-Bhagwangola-Lalgola
21. Kolar-Bangalore
22. Krishnanagar-Behrampore Court

Mainline Electrical Multiple Units (MEMU) Train Services :
1. Ranchi-Asansol
2. Ernakulam-Kollam (via Alappuzha)
3. Vasi Road-Panvel
4. Bangarpet-Koppam
5. Falaknuma-Bhongir
6. Midnapore-Jhargram
7. Kollam-Nagercoil
8. Jhargram-Purulia

The run of the following trains have been proposed to be extended:
1. Chhindwara-Gwalior Express to Delhi (11101/11102)
2. Jhansi-Chhindwara Express to Delhi (11103/11104)
3. Udaipur-Gwalior Express to Khajuraho (12965/12966)
4. Solapur-Gadag Express to Hubli (11423/11424)
5. Jabalpur-Nagpur Express to Amravati (12159/12160)
6. Nizamuddin-Bapudham Motihari Express to Muzaffarpur (12211/12212)
7. Jammu Tawi-Sonpur Express to Muzaffarpur (12491/12492)
8. Lucknow-Allahabad Express to Vindhyachal (14209/14210)
9. Chandigarh-Jaipur Garib Rath Express to Ajmer (12983/12984)
10. Indore-Ajmer Express to Jaipur (19655/19656)
11. Lucknow-Saharanpur Express to Chandigarh (15011/15012)
12. Chennai Egmore-Nagore Express to Karaikal (16175/16176)
13. Visakhapatnam-Nizamabad Express to Nanded (18509/18510)
14. Sambalpur-Nizamabad Express to Nanded (18309/18310)
15. Mysore-Shimoga Town Express to Talguppa (16205/16206)
16. Valsad-Vadodara Express to Dahod (12929/12930)
17. Surat-Bhavnagar Express to Mahuva (19025.19026)
18. Sultanpur-Ajmer Express to Ahmedabad (19603/19604)
19. Ajmer-Kishanganj Express to New Jalpaiguri (19601/19602)
20. Mumbai-Allahabad Express to Faizabad via Jaunpur, Shahganj (12563/12564)
21. Yesvantapur-Mangalore Express to Karwar (16515/16516)
22. Saharanpur-Delhi to Farukh Nagar (14546/14545)
23. Lucknow-Bhopal Express to Pratapgarh (12183/12184)
24. Delhi-Shahjahanpur Passenger to Sitapur Cantt. (54075/54076)
25. Moradabad-Chandausi Passenger to Bareilly (54311/54312)
26. Hajipur-Phulwaria Passenger to Bathua Bazar (55221/55222)
27. Hajipur-Thawe Passenger to Kaptanganj (55007/55008)
28. Nagercoil-Thiruvanthapuram Passenger to Kochuvelli (56318/56317)
29. Hyderabad-Wadi Passenger to Gulbarga (57135/57136)
30. Hubli-Bijapur Passenger to Solapur (56909/56910)
31. Nagda-Kota Passenger to Ratlam (59803/59802)
32. Ambala-Una DEMU to Amb Andaura (74991/74992)
33. Ambala-Amritsar DEMU to Kurukshetra (74645/74646)